In Zechariah 8 we read (KJV):
 Thus saith the Lord of hosts; Let your hands be strong, ye that hear in these (הָאֵ֑לֶּה) days these (הָאֵ֑לֶּה) words by the mouth of the prophets, which were in the day that the foundation of the house of the Lord of hosts was laid, that the temple might be built.  For before these (הָהֵ֔ם) days there was no hire for man, nor any hire for beast; neither was there any peace to him that went out or came in because of the affliction: for I set all men every one against his neighbour.
 So again have I thought in these (הָאֵ֑לֶּה) days to do well unto Jerusalem and to the house of Judah: fear ye not.
I've been told that the Hebrew word הָאֵ֑לֶּה in v. 9 basically means "these" and הָהֵ֔ם in v. 10 basically means "those".
In v. 10, when it writes "those (הָהֵ֔ם) days", it is referring to the second year of Darius: when the prophets prompted the people to continue rebuilding the temple (cross reference to this verse would would be Haggai 1:6). Is it possible, then, that when Zechariah writes the phrase "these days" with the word הָאֵ֑לֶּה, he is referring to the present time (Zechariah 8 was given in the fourth year of Darius, Zech 7:1), and therefore contrasting the days of the second year of Darius ("those days") with the days of the fourth year of Darius (or just anytime which is not in the second year of Darius)?
Is there a reason why Zechariah uses two different words for "these" and "those"? The Hebrew words have different roots.