The KJV, Young's Literal, J N Darby and the Englishman's Greek New Testament Interlinear all translate αὐτοῦ ἀπὸ τῆς ὀργῆς as 'from wrath'.
It seems to me that 'the wrath' (as it, strictly speaking, ought to be rendered) is being de-personified, if I might use that expression.
To those who are the recipients of grace, and are truly justified, 'the wrath' will be only observed at a distance. They will never know the unleashing of the awful, the unimaginable, the indescribable fury of the Almighty poured, personally, upon them.
Only with thine eyes shalt thou behold and see the reward of the wicked. Psalm 91:8.
The text of verses 8 and 9 contrasts (literally) 'his own love to us - the Deity' and 'having been justified, now, by his blood' 'shall be saved by him from the wrath'.
I would see the contrast as between ο θεος (the Deity in verse 8) and της οργης (the wrath in verse 9).
The Deity, the wrath removed by its having poured upon Christ at Golgotha, is contrasted with the wrath, being of such a nature that the recipients will know nothing of Deity, only the effects of wrath.
The Deity, without wrath, or the wrath, without Deity, is the contrast I see in these two verses.
I am grateful for this question which draws attention to the article in Romans 5:9 in front of wrath, which is exactly what demonstrates the contrast which I have expressed.