Jesus proclaimed and taught "the gospel of the kingdom" as mentioned in Matthew 24:14:

Mat_24:14  And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.

The twelve apostles were charged with preaching the gospel of the kingdom by the risen Lord:

Mar_16:15  And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.

However Paul claims that Jesus committed to him mysteries never before revealed including the hardening of Israel until the gentiles come in, the body of Christ/new creation, etc:

1Co_9:17  For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me.

Eph_1:10  That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:

Eph_3:2  If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:

Col_1:25  Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;

Now that Paul's gospel has arrived is Jesus' gospel of the kingdom relegated to history since it is from a prior age, similar to the Torah?

To put it another way, now that we are in the Church age/dispensation rather than the Israel age does Paul suggest that the new gospel obviates the gospel of Jesus and the 12 apostles? Or was he not even aware of Jesus' gospel?

Or put another way, is Jesus' gospel "Israel-specific" while Paul's "new creation" surpasses it and subsumes it?

KJV unless otherwise noted.

  • How is Christ's gospel "Israel specific" when he told them them to preach it to every creature? Paul learned his Gospel from Christ himself, not flesh and blood. Are you trying to say he taught his 12 apostles a different gospel than his other apostle Paul? Of course not. This is the problem you come across when trying to fit the end of the age into 70 ad. Plus Paul's gospel was preached along side the 12 apostles before 70 ad. – diego b Apr 13 '18 at 19:00
  • It's disgusting to imply the long awaited Messiahs preaching would last only 40 years... – diego b Apr 13 '18 at 19:01
  • That was Jesus' mission: Mat 15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. – Ruminator Apr 13 '18 at 19:51
  • @diego b, it is not disgusting, it is someones opinion from his viewpoint that can easily be corrected/refuted with a teaching from the bible, without being harsh about it. – Alfa Bravo Apr 13 '18 at 20:23
  • 2
    I've voted to close, because this question is entirely based around building a systematic theology between teachings of Jesus and Paul (and operates on a number of theological assumptions), and is not about exegesis of a specific text. This would be more fit for Christianity.SE, not Hermeneutics.SE. – user2910 Apr 13 '18 at 21:32

Absolutely not. Logic would have it that because the end has not come, "this gospel" is still being preached. Once it is done being preached, the end will come.

But what is "this gospel" or "the gospel of the kingdom" exactly? I believe the term is derived from the Scroll of the Prophet Isaiah, Ch. 52, verse 7:

"How beautiful upon the mountains are the feet of him that bringeth good tidings, that publisheth peace; that bringeth good tidings of good, that publisheth salvation; that saith unto Zion, Thy God reigneth!" (KJV)

So, we learn here that the gospel, or "good tidings" is a message of peace, salvation, and the reign of God NOW in our lives. But the verse goes on and we learn more,

"Thy watchmen shall lift up the voice; with the voice together shall they sing: for they shall see eye to eye, when YHVH shall bring again Zion."

So the gospel of the kingdom is all about Jerusalem/Zion because that is where the king reigns! The good tidings are that YHVH is going to rule the earth from Jerusalem by his Son the Prince Messiah, and that we can be resurrected into that kingdom because Jesus first came to make peace and save us so His Father can rule our lives...and we can actually keep his commandments. Yes, through faith it is possible. And that's the kicker.

The seeing eye-to-eye that is spoken of clearly refers to Jer. 31:31-34

"After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people. And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more."

The word for Law is Torah, meaning God will write the Torah on our hearts by the Holy Spirit. We will all come into the land of Israel and keep the Torah, Jew and Gentile together keeping Sabbath and all the feast together at last. Seeing eye-to-eye at last. This is true olive branch theology and this is what Paul and Jesus taught. Many folds become one flock with Israel and Judah. HalleluYah!

'There shall be one standard for you; it shall be for the stranger as well as the native, for I am the LORD your God." (Lev. 24:22).

However, God intends for Israel and the believing Gentiles to DWELL TOGETHER and this is what has yet to occur, and this was the caveat everyone was dealing with at the time. However, it's clear from Paul's teaching that he sought to allow the Gentiles to come into Torah obedience in their own time (not by forcing all the Law all at once when it would be geographically hard to keep it anyway).

First comes salvation from sin (blood of the lamb) by faith, then comes the Law written on our hearts (Torah). This is the same truth Paul and Jesus were teaching, but from different angles. Jesus taught a people, "the Torah [not Judaism] will lead you to me." and Paul taught, "Jesus will lead you to the Torah [not Judaism]." Because Jesus IS THE WORD, these are not to different messages.

Remember. Grafted in = one Torah

  • The end of the age came in 70AD with the destruction of the temple (Matthew 24:1-4). Paul ushered in a new dispensation, to the gentiles. – Ruminator Apr 13 '18 at 19:53
  • The new covenant (like the Sinai covenant) is made only with the houses of Israel and Judah. – Ruminator Apr 13 '18 at 19:56
  • @Ruminator there were gentiles grafted into the old covenant , same with the new covenant. I'm just curious, where do you get these teachings from? – diego b Apr 13 '18 at 20:43
  • @diegob The gentiles were grafted into Abraham, not into Israel and the old covenant. That would be a disaster! Even the Jew, in Paul's gospel, dies to the law and is justified solely by the grace of God through faith. – Ruminator Apr 13 '18 at 20:50
  • @diegob I've found this series very helpful in grasping this subject: youtube.com/playlist?list=PLESaU36LHAs06xds5urCyrS9-2lrsvF3j – Ruminator Apr 13 '18 at 20:53

The proclivity of people of our generation, and our time period to put the things spoken of 2,000 years ago into our accustomed thinking, and our accustomed life style is anachronistic. "All the world" 2,000 years ago was not the same world that we live in today. Let me offer a previous post from my site that addresses this use of "all the world" of Matt. 24:14.

When it comes to reading the Bible, the western English speaking world is at a great disadvantage. We have been trained to take things at face value, and to be very literal minded. But, the peoples of the Eastern world have a much different mindset, and are very familiar with poetical language, metaphorical prophesy, and the huge imagery of hyperbole to make a point.

Luke 2:1 -

"And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree from Caesar Augustus that all the world should be taxed." (KJV)

"And it came to pass in those days, there went forth a decree from Caesar Augustus, that all the world be enrolled --" (YLT)

"In those days a decree went out from Caesar Augustus that all the world should be registered." (ESV)

"In those days Caesar Augustus issued a decree that a census should be taken of the entire Roman world." (NIV)

"And it came about at that time that a dvar malchut (decree) was sent out from Caesar Augustus to register everyone in the entire Roman Empire." (Orthodox Jewish Bible)

It only makes sense, and we subconsciously recognize that Caesar Augustus only had authority and dominion to tax the people living in the lands which he ruled... the Roman empire. So, "all the world" in Luke 2:1 equaled the old Roman empire.

Then, which "world" did Christ speak of in Matt. 24:14?

"And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come." (*KJV)

Did Christ mean in every land across the entire physical earth? Or, did He mean the Roman empire of that time period?

The word used for "world" in Matt. 24:14 is Strong's Greek 3625: "oikoumené: the inhabited earth" and the definition is:

"(properly: the land that is being inhabited, the land in a state of habitation), the inhabited world, that is, the Roman world, for all outside it was regarded as of no account." (SeeBibleHub)

"Oikoumené" was used in two other verses:

Luke 21:26,

"Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth [oikoumené]: for the powers of heaven shall be shaken." (KJV)

Remembering that when God's prophesy speaks of heavens that can be shaken it is a metaphor for the kingdoms of men. (See my other post "Heaven and Earth Have Passed Away.) The heaven where God sits on His throne cannot be shaken or removed.

Therefore, the heaven, or kingdom referred to in Luke 21:26 was that which ruled the earth in the first century A.D. and was the Roman empire.

The second use of "oikoumené" is found in Acts 19:27.

"So that not only this our craft is in danger to be set at nought; but also that the temple of the great goddess Diana should be despised, and her magnificence should be destroyed, whom all Asia and the world [oikoumené] worshippeth." (KJV)

The "world" here referred to all the lands that worshipped the pagan goddess Diana, which at that time was Asia and the surrounding pagan nations. Ellicott's Commentary defines it.

"Asia is, of course, the proconsular province, and the “world” is used conventionally, as in Luke 2:1, for the Roman empire. Apuleius uses language almost identical with that of Demetrius, “Diana Ephesia cujus nomen unicum . . . totus veneratur orbis.” Source:here.

So, the pagan nation(s) which worshiped the goddess Diana was one of the provinces of the Roman empire. A nation ... a province of Rome. Because, Rome acquired more territories as it conquered a people who occupied a certain land or nation, and then added those nations to their empire as a province of Rome.

The Romans distinguished Republican provinces which were controlled by the Senate, and the Imperial provinces which were ruled by representatives of Caesar who answered only to Caesar. A list of the Roman provinces in 14 AD is available at Livius.org, and included Sicilia, Germania, Hispania, Africa, Asia, Macedonia, Gallia, Syria, Cyprus, and Judea.

The Romans kept conquering nations throughout the first century AD and by the time Revelation was written in 66-68 AD had added Mauretaina, Britannia, Thracia, the Alps of Italy, Switzerland, and France.

The world and the nations of the world during the time in which the books of the New Testament were written was the old Roman empire.

Therefore, Christ's prophesy in Matthew 24:14 can be paraphrased for our understanding as follows:

"And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in [in all of the Roman empire] for a witness unto [all the people who inhabit the Roman provinces]; and then shall the end come."

The Bible was not written in English, and the New Testament was not written yesterday. When reading the Bible we have to put ourselves in their shoes, and their time period, their age, their political world, and their culture.

Paul stated in Col. 1:23,

"If ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from the hope of the gospel, which ye have heard, and which was preached to every creature which is under heaven; whereof I Paul am made a minister;" (KJV)

"Every creature which is under heaven" was every person under the rule of the "heaven" of the earthly kingdom of the Roman empire. As the book of Colossians was written about 61-62 AD (see DatingTheNewTestament), then according to Paul, the gospel had been preached in all the "world" throughout the Roman empire by 61 - 62 AD.

The "end" came approximately 8 years later in 70 AD at the destruction of the old covenant temple in Jerusalem. And "all the world" saw it (Rev. 1:7).

Rev. 3:10,

"Because thou hast kept the word of my patience, I also will keep thee from the hour of temptation, which shall come upon all the world [oikoumenēs], to try them that dwell upon the earth [land]." (KJV)

Rev. 12:9,

"And the great dragon was cast out, that old serpent, called the Devil, and Satan, which deceiveth the whole world [oikoumenēn]: he was cast out into the earth, and his angels were cast out with him." (KJV)

Rev. 16:14,

"For they are the spirits of devils, working miracles, which go forth unto the kings of the earth [oikoumenēs] and of the whole world [oikoumenēs], to gather them to the battle of that great day of God Almighty." (KJV- literally "kings of the inhabited whole")

In each of these verses above " oikoumenēs" or " oikoumenēn " is the same meaning of the known world of their day. That world was the inhabited lands and provinces of the Roman empire. Their world was the fourth beast kingdom that had been prophesied from Daniel chap. 7 in which Christ was manifested and appeared on earth to become the lamb slain from the foundation of the "kosmou" [world or universe - Rev. 13:8].

It was not used in these scriptures to mean the entire earth. The prophesies of Matt. 24 and of Revelation had an application to the first century AD and to the known world of its day - the old Roman empire... the world in which they lived. Taking them out of the 1st century A.D. is anachronistic.

We must search the original scriptures and become familiar with the Hebrew Aramaic definitions, and idioms in order to fully comprehend their meanings. The word "world" had been used in the English translations of the scriptures for several different meanings, and we cannot apply it the same way each time. It does not always mean the entire earth. Source: Frequent Mistakes Part IV

Nor does "the end" refer to the end of all life on earth. It was the end of days of the prophesy Grabriel had given to Daniel in Dan. 9:24 - 12:13, which was solely about Daniel's people - thy people - and about Daniel's holy city - thy holy city: the Jews and Jerusalem. The end was of the end of the desolations of Jerusalem, and the destruction of that 2nd Mosaic temple and all of the animal sin sacrifices that became profane once Christ was sacrificed on the cross.

The gospel of Christ has been in effect since the first century A.D. when Christ roared those words forth from Jerusalem / Zion (Joel 3:16; Amos 1:2). They have been roaring throughout the centuries and throughout all the nations ever since. They are very much still in effect.

See my other posts for Daniel and The End Times, Frequent Mistakes - Part III: The Last Day, and others at ShreddingTheVeil

  • 1
    Wouldn't you agree that Jesus' gospel of the kingdom was about calling Israel to recognize their Messiah while Paul's is about Christ's finished work for all peoples? And that Jesus upheld the law while Paul upended it? I mean, one could read the sermon on the mount a thousand times and never understand that Christ died for our sins, the law is obviated, the believer becomes part of Christ's body, etc. It is a different gospel from the one he gave Paul for the gentiles. – Ruminator Apr 13 '18 at 23:42
  • Not exactly, No. Jesus was sent to the remnant of Israel (Matt. 15:24), but the intent was always to make of the two methods / systems (Patriarchal & Israelite) one man (Eph 2:14). Just because God promised Abraham that the Seed would come through his son Isaac does not mean that God forgot everyone else on earth. He always heard the righteous men of the other nations under the patriarch system. It was always His plan to unit all men through Christ. Peter was sent to the Jews; Paul to the nations to preach the very same gospel (Eph 3:6; Gal. 2:7-8). The gospel of the kingdom is for all. – Gina Apr 14 '18 at 0:44
  • 1
    Paul's new man/new creation is the body of Christ. This was a mystery never revealed before Paul. Even after 40 days of the risen Lord teaching about the kingdom of God the apostles were looking for Israel to become the kingdom (Acts 1:8) But Christ revealed to Paul that "blindness" was on Israel to open the way for the gentiles, to make Israel jealous. Jesus came to be rejected (and the gospel of the kingdom to fail) until the fullness of the gentiles were brought in. In the future Israel will be grafted back into Abraham. Different gospels! – Ruminator Apr 14 '18 at 1:01
  • @Ruminator, that is the Jesuit/Zionist psy-op they created by twisting the scriptures to suit their political agenda. They made Amer. Christians believe that Jerusalem / Israel had to be recreated so that Christ could "come again" so they could get money & weapons. They wanted control of the resources of the ME, as one of the largest deposits of oil in the world is under the Gaza strip. It was all about money and wars and power. Christ already established His kingdom, & He has been judging the world since His ascension. See Part VI of Its Not The End of The World at my blog above. – Gina Apr 14 '18 at 2:41
  • 1
    If God were content to fulfill his promises through replacement of Israel he would have done it in Number 14! – Ruminator Apr 14 '18 at 8:51

It is not obsolete no, if you look for it you will find it behind every atom

Mat 13:44 The kingdom of the heavens is like a treasure hid in the field, which a man having found has hid, and for the joy of it goes and sells all whatever he has, and buys that field.

There is a great mystery regarding the gospel of the kingdom which is sustained by God himself for reasons that I am not going to go into now.

Mar 4:11 And he said to them, To you is given to know the mystery of the kingdom of God; but to them who are without, all things are done in parables

But building off off that point, not many people realize that the kingdom of God (and the Gospel of the Kingdom) points to more than one concept.

  1. If you want, there can be the physical kingdom of God lasting 1000 years that many denominations (parts of denominations) believe in. This can indeed be seen as good news, reigning with Christ over His creation will be a joyful time for all creation.

Rev 20:6 Blessed and holy he who has part in the first resurrection: over these the second death has no power; but they shall be priests of God and of the Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years.

  1. Then Jesus also spoke of a - lets call it an inner (soul) Kingdom. This is the Kingdom of God reigning inside of us. This is where Gods perfect will can be accomplished in every believer through the power that comes form the Holy Spirit. Even in this world for some it will be possible to live uprightly before God.

Mar 12:34 And Jesus, seeing that he had answered intelligently, said to him, Thou art not far from the kingdom of God. And no one dared question him any more.

Luk 9:27 But I say unto you of a truth, There are some of those standing here who shall not taste death until they shall have seen the kingdom of God.

  1. It can also be said that there is a Spiritual Kingdom of God that have come when Jesus walked the earth. One where good triumphed over evil, and Satan was cast out of Heaven

Luk 11:20 But if by the finger of God I cast out demons, then the kingdom of God is come upon you.

Now the problem with any answer on this Exchange is that I can write a book on almost any line that I just touched upon now, but I just gave a few examples to show you that in one case the Kingdom of God have come (Spiritual), in another case it exists right now (Soul) and in even another case it is still to come (Flesh).

But it is not obsolete: It was, is, and is still to come.

  • 1
    Wasn't Jesus' gospel a gospel of works? – Ruminator Apr 13 '18 at 20:26
  • Among other things yes, ergo my 3rd point. – Alfa Bravo Apr 13 '18 at 20:28
  • 1
    He was a Jew, made under the law. He did not come to compromise the law but to make it full and robust. But Paul was sent by Jesus to preach a new gospel for the gentiles, apart from works of the law. – Ruminator Apr 13 '18 at 20:33
  • @Ruminator what works did Christ teach when they asked him "How can we work the works of God"? He answered that belief in him is the works of God (John 6:28-29).. How is that different than paul? – diego b Apr 13 '18 at 20:38
  • @Ruminator also Paul taught the righteousness of the law, same as Christ. They both taught the 2 great commandments fulfill the law – diego b Apr 13 '18 at 20:40

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.