In Ephesians 5:5 (NIV) we read:
For of this you can be sure: No immoral, impure or greedy person—such a person is an idolater—has any inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and of God.
On initially reading this I thought I must be reading a new translation because I was sure the text attached idolatry to greedy more explicitly. The way NIV renders "person" here twice made me read it differently. It appears that I was thinking of Colossians 3:5.
Harold Hoehner says "The relative pronoun refers the reader back to the greedy person and not to all three of the preceding persons; the singular points to this."1 But the verb of the sentence (i.e. "has") is also singular, so I don't understand the force of the argument.
Does the parenthetical remark attach only to the greedy person or does it attach to an immoral or impure person as well?
Assuming shared authorship, the parallel in Colossians makes a good argument for preferring the former. But in particular I'm interested if the meaning of the Ephesians verse can be decided without recourse to the Colossians passage.
1. Hoehner, H. W. (2002). Ephesians: An Exegetical Commentary (p. 660). Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Academic.