Philippians 4:2

2 I beseech Euodias, and beseech Syntyche, that they be of the same mind in the Lord. KJV, 1679

Βʹ εὐωδίαν παρακαλῶ καὶ Συντύχην παρακαλῶ τὸ αὐτὸ φρονεῖν ἐν κυρίῳ TR, 1550

Why does the Apostle Paul use the verb παρακαλέω twice in the above text.

Could it be a way of emphasis?

  • Paul is acting as a mediator, addressing first one and then the other, beseeching each to be of the same mind to the other, showing no favouritism but rather showing impartial equity.
    – Nigel J
    Mar 25, 2018 at 3:28

1 Answer 1


Grammatically, there’s no reason for the verbal duplication. Thus, there appears to be an emotional or sentimental basis for it. Some interpret the passage as implying a disagreement between Euodias and Syntyche.

Theodoret of Cyrus wrote,2

On the one hand, [Paul] is amazed at the women, but on the other hand, he intimates them having a certain quarrel with one another.

θαυμάζει μὲν τὰς γυναῖκας· αἰνίττεται δὲ ὡς ἔριν τινὰ πρὸς ἀλλήλας ἐχούσας

Imagine, then, the apostle Paul appealing to both individually to settle their quarrel for the sake of Christian unity. Bengel wrote, “He puts this twice as though exhorting them apart personally, and that with the utmost equality.”2


1 p. 585
2 p. 730: “Hoc bis ponit, quasi coram adhortans seorsum utramvis, idque summa cum æquitate.


Bengel, Johann Albrecht. Gnomon Novi Testamenti. Ed. Bengel, M. Ernest; Steudel, Johann, Heinrich. 3rd ed. London: Nutt, 1862.

Theodoret of Cyrus (Θεοδώρητος Κύρρου). “ΕΡΜΗΝΕΙΑ ΤΗΣ ΠΡΟΣ ΦΙΛΙΠΠΗΣΙΟΥΣ ΕΠΙΣΤΟΛΗΣ.Patrologiæ Cursus Completus: Series Græca Prior. Ed. Migne, Jacques Paul. Vol. 82. Petit-Montrouge: Imprimerie Catholique, 1864.

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.