In Gen. 24:7, Abraham said: ז יְהוָה אֱלֹהֵי הַשָּׁמַיִם, אֲשֶׁר לְקָחַנִי מִבֵּית אָבִי וּמֵאֶרֶץ מוֹלַדְתִּי, וַאֲשֶׁר דִּבֶּר-לִי וַאֲשֶׁר נִשְׁבַּע- לִי לֵאמֹר, לְזַרְעֲךָ אֶתֵּן אֶת-הָאָרֶץ הַזֹּאת--הוּא, יִשְׁלַח מַלְאָכוֹ לְפָנֶיךָ, וְלָקַחְתָּ אִשָּׁה לִבְנִי, מִשָּׁם. 7 The LORD, the God of heaven, who took me from my father's house, and from the land of my nativity, and who spoke unto me, and who swore unto me, saying:

This verse implies that "land of my nativity" means that Abraham was born in the Ur near Haran vs. the Ur near the Persian Gulf. Is that a correct translation or is the meaning too vague to be definitive e? Thanks.

  • I believe מולדתי can mean either 'my kin' or or 'my native [land].' I would think the English equivalent would be מִבֵּית אָבִי וּמֵאֶרֶץ מוֹלַדְתִּי 'from the house of my father, whence I hail, ..' or something similar. בית (house) could also be being used to designate 'clan/tribe' I'll let the Hebrew experts correct me on that. Mar 7, 2018 at 16:39
  • 1
    I don't understand the question. How does this verse say anything about whether Abraham was born in one Ur or another?
    – b a
    Mar 7, 2018 at 18:44
  • This is to respond to b a: I'm wondering if the Hebrew implies that "my father's house" and "land of my nativity" are two completely separate things. Abraham's father took Abraham, Sarah and Lot to Haran and Nahor and Milcah joined them there. So technically, by current logic, Abraham left his father's house in Haran. However, the land of his nativity was Ur. If Abraham came from the Ur on the Persian Gulf, that isn't anywhere near Haran. So is the Hebrew implying something about the two places - that they are the same or different, or is this just a mystery? Thanks.
    – user14423
    Mar 8, 2018 at 17:47


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