1

Romans 8:9 (KJV) But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.

Is the "spirit of Christ" and the "spirit of God" the same spirit or two different spirits?

1

Yes, the passage clearly, unambiguously says that this is the same Spirit, because by the phrase "But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit", Paul separates his addressees from those who are fleshly, possess no Spirit, and thus are able neither to contemplate about spiritual realities, nor to please God (cf. Romans 8:5-8), stating immediately the condition for this separation "if Spirit of God dwells in you". Then he again returns to the very same people who possess not the Spirit by the phrase "now, if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his", that is to say, those "none of his" refer to those Spirit-deprived, from whom Paul has just in previous sentences separated the Spirit-possessors (for there is no other class of humans but Spirit-possessors and the Spirit-deprived); now, if the principle of this separation is the Spirit in the phrase "Spirit of God", then how can the "Spirit of Christ" Which (or rather Who) is the principle of the very same separation possibly be any other Spirit but the very same Spirit?

Again, Paul is emphatic that the Spirit of God is the Spirit of Christ also in 1 Cor. 2:14-16, saying that those who possess not Spirit cannot understand things that come from the Spirit of God, and then in verse 14 he quotes Isaiah 40:13 and semantically with the absolutely identical meaning calls the just-quoted "Spirit of God" - the "Mind of Lord", and immediately claims that also we, Christians possess the very same Mind, called now "the Mind of Christ", and thus, the "Spirit of Christ", since the "Mind" and "Spirit" are used interchangeably in 1 Cor. 2:14-16; and, moreover, since "Mind of Lord" of Isaiah is identified with "Mind of Christ", and since the "Lord" in Isaiah is identified with God, then Christ is also identified with God. That is why, Christ does not "possess" (ἔχει) Spirit, and Spirit does not "dwell" (οἰκέι) in Him (in the manner the Spirit is possessed by and dwells in us), but the Spirit is called "Christ's Spirit" just with the same power and semantics as in the expression of "God's Spirit" or "Father's Spirit" or "Lord's Spirit". But neither is Christ identical with Father, being the Latter's Son, yet to both of Them the Spirit belongs in the intrinsic and essential manner and not in the manner of participation or bestowal like in us.

Logos is the very Truth (John 14:6), and the Holy Spirit is the "Spirit of Truth" (John 16:13).

And yes, as you have mentioned, the human heart is the eternal throne and dwelling place of the Father and the Son (John 14:23); but also of the Spirit, for only through Spirit we can understand and acclaim the divinity of Christ (1 Cor. 12:3), and only through Spirit the new Israel will be able to worship the Father (John 4:24), for the condition of true and rightful worshiping of the Father is the just-mentioned acclamation of the divinity of the Son (Phil. 2:11); and just as God's Son, so also God's Spirit will dwell eternally in heart of man, who is, therefore, the Spirit's living temple (1 Cor. 6:19).

Thus, human heart is the Throne of Holy Trinity.

| improve this answer | |
  • Let us continue this discussion in chat. – Levan Gigineishvili Mar 1 '18 at 20:28
  • 1
    @diego Comments are not for discussion. Please don't jump in with "I agree but" or other discussion starters. Comments should only request clarification or suggest specific improvements, you can go hang out in Biblical Hermeneutics Chat if you want to discuss things. – Caleb Mar 2 '18 at 7:19
  • @Caleb do you guys purposely try to make this site as least fun as possible? – diego b Mar 2 '18 at 17:50
  • @diegob If by "fun" you mean rambling topical debates and discussions, then yes, yes we do try to make it as least fun as possible. We try to keep the signal to noise ratio way up, and that kind of fun is is mostly in the noise. – Caleb Mar 2 '18 at 17:53
  • 1
    @diegob And now we're abusing the comment section again. I'm going to clean this up shortly, but if you have any concerns to air out about how the site works or how it is moderated you are welcome to take them to Biblical Hermeneutics Meta. That's the correct venue to discuss how the site should be and whether moderators are facilitating that. – Caleb Mar 2 '18 at 18:00
0

Paul identifies many spirits:

Reference
Romans 1:4
Romans 8:9
Romans 8:9
Romans 8:15
2 Corinthians 3:17
2 Corinthians 4:13
Galatians 4:6
Ephesians 1:17
TR
πνευμα αγιωσυνης
πνευμα θεου
πνευμα χριστου
πνευμα υιοθεσιας
πνευμα κυριου
πνευμα της πιστεως
πνευμα του υιου αυτου
πνευμα σοφιας
KJV
spirit of holiness
spirit of God
spirit of Christ
spirit of adoption
spirit of the Lord
spirit of faith
spirit of his son
spirit of wisdom

But they are all manifestations of the ONE SPIRIT, for he also says:

4There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; 5 One Lord, one faith, one baptism, 6 One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.
-- Ephesians 4:4-6 (KJV)

| improve this answer | |
-1

“By ‘the Spirit of Christ’, is not meant the human soul of Christ; nor his divine nature; nor his Gospel, which is the Spirit that gives life; but the Holy Spirit, the third person in the Trinity, the same which is called the Spirit before; and proves Christ to be God, He proceeds from him as from the Father, is sent by Him, and with which Christ's human nature was fitted and filled” (J. Gill). The Holy Spirit is called the Spirit of Christ, because He proceeds from Him, and is acquired by Him, John 14:26, John 16:7, Galatians 4:6 (Poole). “The Spirit which Christ imparts, or sends to accomplish his work, John 14:26, the Holy Spirit, sent to make us like Christ, and to sanctify our hearts… If this refers to the Holy Spirit, then we see the manner in which the apostle spoke of the Saviour. He regarded ‘the Spirit’ as equally the Spirit of God and of Christ, as proceeding from both; and thus evidently believed that there is a union of nature between the Father and the Son. Such language could never be used except on the supposition that the Father and Son are one; that is, that Christ is divine. (Barnes). See I Pt.1:10-12; Cf. Mt.10:20, “Spirit of your Father.”

| improve this answer | |

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.