If one is satisfied that Isaiah 7:14 is properly translated as:
King James Bible Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
. (Translation of the Hebrew word as virgin is discussed here.)
And if one is convinced this prophecies about Mary conceiving Jesus. Is there also a reason to conclude that this scripture is telling us that the virgin who conceived would still be a virgin when she gives birth to the son?
It seems that the verse would still be accurate even if the virgin who conceived lost her virginity during the time she was pregnant.
She would still be the virgin who conceived. And she would inevitably give birth to the child conceived while she was a virgin.
Does the scripture rule out the possibility that after conception the pregnant woman may have consummated her marriage before the miraculously conceived child was born?
I am not asking if Mary remained a virgin throughout the pregnancy as Matthew 1:25 certainly tells us that she did. But when people point to the verse in Isaiah as having prophesied about more than her being a virgin at conception I am not convinced from my understanding of this verse as rendered in English.