Sorry if this seems like a dumb question but I am not well versed with N.T. Greek Grammar, but I am decently versed with Germanic grammar, which is probably too different in some cases to be sufficient alone.
I was preparing a response on my opinions that faith and grace do not save us, but Jesus saves by using grace which is come by grace, because of my understanding of how my Bible translates the sentence as: "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: not of works, lest any man should boast."
I rewrite that verse, as I understand it, as: "So (Jesus) via grace saved y'all, via faith, and that (salvation) not of yourselves; it's the gift of God: not from works, lest any person should boast."
Seeing that τῆς πίστεως is used and not τῇ πῐ́στει nor τὴν πῐ́στῐν makes me wonder why the verse is not translated somewhere along the lines of: "... through faith's grace are you all saved... " But again, that is with my proud understanding of germanic grammar, and I know full well not all languages use the same declensions for the same purposes-- to my understanding, modern Greek uses accusative similar to English's variant of oblique case.
I do believe that I read on two occasions that in one, genitive case is used in Hebrew and therefore in biblical greek to fulfill the dative, and in another that because Ancient Greek had no specific instrumental case, genitive, dative, and accusative were used by various peoples to fulfill the ablative.
I guess that that would make sense, not all dialects use the same grammars; my dialect from English uses the oblique them as nominative those and my idiolect uses plural agreement between possessors and possessees roles.
Thank any and all in advance.