It seems to be a tradition dating back to the Vulgate to translate the Greek infinitive ἐγκακεῖν with a second-person pronoun or a second-person verb. Examples include: "[you] not to faint" (YLT), "ye faint not" (KJV) and the 2nd pl. subjunctive "ne deficiatis". (VUL) But the original Greek merely has an infinitive, no mention of a second person pronoun. Is it really necessary to interpret this infinitive in the second person, or could Paul himself possibly be the subject of the infinitive?
For example, would "wherefore, I pray not to grow weary in my tribulations for you, which is your glory" also be a plausible translation? The meaning would change, as it would be a prayer for himself, not for the Ephesians. But going by the Greek alone, it seems possible, at least to me.
What are your thoughts?
3:13 διὸ αἰτοῦμαι μὴ ἐγκακεῖν ἐν ταῖς θλίψεσίν μου ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν, ἥτις ἐστὶν δόξα ὑμῶν.
wherefore, I ask [you] not to faint in my tribulations for you, which is your glory. (YLT)
So I ask you not to lose heart over what I am suffering for you, which is your glory. (ESV)
Wherefore I desire that ye faint not at my tribulations for you, which is your glory. (KJV)
Wherefore I pray you not to faint at my tribulations for you, which is your glory. (Douay-Rheims)
propter quod peto ne deficiatis in tribulationibus meis pro vobis quae est gloria vestra (VUL)