What exactly is the difference between saying something 'to' someone ("λέγει πρὸς αὐτόν"), and simply saying something to someone ("λέγει αὐτῷ").
I read in John 2:3-4 that:
- Mary "λέγει πρὸς αὐτόν" (Jesus) (v. 3)
- Jesus "λέγει αὐτῇ" (Mary) (v. 4) (see v. 10 for the masculine equivalent, not that it matters—"λέγει αὐτῷ")
St. John seems to be the only one to use this language (well, relatively speaking: I found one 'hit' in Acts 21:37): 3:4; 4:15; 4:49; 6:5; 7:50, in my analysis, suggest that πρὸς is simply an intensifier, adding an undertone of concern to what they say. Almost like an exclamation mark or question mark or two (depending on the context), is to be added to what they say.
How accurate is this analysis?