1 Tim 6:13 in the KJV has: I give thee charge in the sight of God
The Amplified (classis) reads: I [solemnly] charge you
I have been studying the Bible for 40 years as a layman with no formal education in Bible languages. I've got a Strongs and Vines (lost my Thayers years ago), and Scoffield, Dake, and Thompson Chain Bibles. But I've been feeling the desire for a better understanding of the Greek (Hebrew, too - but I'll start here). And this verse seems to be a good place to launch.
As far as I can tell, "solemn" is not in the original Greek. Yet something somewhere in either the connotations of "charge" or perhaps the grammar of the sentence suggested adding "solemn" to the Amplified translators (and in other versions as well). And in so doing, the translators added a "flavor" to the verse that is not readily apparent on the surface to the average reader.
So I have a two-fold question, please:
(1) Can someone please guide me through this verse to explain the justification - or lack thereof - for "solemn"? I'm used to that word evoking holy, sacred, fear of God, etc -- but I don't want to read any of that into it if it's not supported.
(2) Where do I begin getting a better handle on the nuances of Greek word and grammar choices? At least as much as a layman using basic tools can have?
Thank you!! Ed