And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God.
This can either be interpreted as confirming or disconfirming Christ's divinity. Are there any cues from the language or especially from the original Greek that can help explain what the exact tone of the conversation was, and if Jesus was not intending to tell the man to actually disbelieve in his deity?
The text says that the young man approached Jesus calling him "Good Teacher" or "Good Master" (διδάσκαλε ἀγαθέ).
Greek commentaries on this verse point out that the reason that Jesus rebuked the man - albeit very mildly - was for calling him only a διδάσκαλος (didaskolos) - "teacher". The interpretation is that Jesus is saying something like, "If you think me truly good, you would realize I am not a mere teacher."
Theophylact comments here:
Why does Jesus say in reply to him, "There is none good but One"? Because the young man had approached Jesus as if Jesus were only a man, and only one among teachers. This is what Christ is saying: If you call Me good thinking I am a teacher, I say that no man is good by comparison to God. But if you call Me good thinking that I am God, why then do you call Me Teacher? By these words Christ wished to draw the man up to a higher understanding, so that he would recognize Jesus as God.1
Theophylact's explanation echoes a much earlier Greek commentary by John Chrysostom (4th c.), who commented on the parallel passage in Matthew (19:16-17):
Wherefore then doth Christ thus reply to him, saying, “There is none good?” Because He came unto Him as a mere man, and one of the common sort, and a Jewish teacher; for this cause then as a man He discourses with him. And indeed in many instances He replies to the secret thoughts of them that come unto Him; as when He saith, “We worship we know what;”2 and, “If I bear witness of myself, my witness is not true.”3 When therefore He saith, “There is none good;” not as putting Himself out from being good doth He say this, far from it; for he said not, “Why dost thou call me good? I am not good;” but, “there is none good,” that is, none amongst men.4
Thus the young man may have spoken an innocent greeting - "Good Teacher" - but Jesus uses the occasion to draw the young man into a deeper understanding of who He really is. The connection between God and goodness may have been more obvious in Matthew's version, since a little before Jesus had said (7:11):
If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children, how much more shall your Father which is in heaven give good things to them that ask him?
This point is also observed in Chrysostom's commentary:
And when He saith this self-same thing, He saith it not as depriving even men of goodness, but in contradistinction to the goodness of God. Wherefore also He added, “But one, that is, God;” and He said not, “but my Father,” that thou mightest learn that He had not revealed Himself to the young man. So also further back He called men evil, saying, “If ye, being evil, know how to give good gifts to your children.” For indeed there too He called them evil, not as condemning the whole race as evil (for by “ye,” He means not “ye men”), but comparing the goodness that is in men with the goodness of God, He thus named it; therefore also He added, “How much more shall your Father give good things to them that ask Him?” And what was there to urge Him, or what the profit that He should answer in this way? He leads him on by little and little, and teaches him to be far from all flattery, drawing him off from the things upon each, and fastening him upon God, and persuading him to seek after the things to come, and to know that which is really good, and the root and fountain of all things, and to refer the honors to Him.
1. The Explanation of the Holy Gospel According to Mark (tr. from the Greek; Chrysostom Press, 1993), p.85.
2. John 4:22
3. John 5:31
4. Homily LXIII on Matthew
From a linguistic point of view the term “good” is used at Mark 10:18 in a specific way. It is preceded by λέγω with the sense “to identify in a specific manner, call, name.” [3] Thus, this is not merely a case where the adjective is being used to describe Jesus as “good.”
That it was used rather as a title can also be seen from the fact that Διδάσκαλε ἀγαθέ, “Good Teacher” is in the vocative of direct address. As a result all English versions capitalize the title as in “Good Teacher.”
Jesus responds to being identified with this title by asking him why he “named” him (ie identified) in that way and corrected him saying that “no one is good except one, God” or “except God alone” both with the same meaning.
The Bauer-Danker-Arndt-Gingrich Greek lexicon (BDAG) speaks directly to your question regarding Jesus’ deity and this verse. That Greek lexicon says to compare Mark 10:18 as evidence that the term θεός does not equate Jesus with his Father and therefore does not violate the Shema of Dt. 6:4, the very basis of Jewish and Christian monotheism. [4]
It is of great interest that the early church understood “God” here to be a reference to the Father in both Greek and Latin. [5]
While all Christians consider Jesus to be good in a moral sense, we are advised by Jesus himself that his Father is the standard of “good.”
In fact, in a prayer to his Father he described his Father as “the only true God” at John 17:3.
[3] BDAG 4531 λέγω 4. to identify in a specific manner, call, name (Aeschyl. et al.) w. double acc. (Epict. 2, 19, 19τί Στωικὸν ἔλεγες σεαυτόν; Diog. L. 8, 88 τὴν ἡδονὴν λέγειν τὸ ἀγαθόν=call pleasure the [real] good; 2 Macc 4:2; Just., D. 61, 1ἀρχηστρατηγὸν ἑαυτὸν λέγει) τινά τι describe someone as someth. **τί με λέγεις ἀγαθόν; why do you call me good? Mk 10:18; Lk 18:19. ** Δαυὶδ λέγει αὐτὸν κύριον David calls him Lord Mk 12:37.
[4] BDAG θεος 2. Some writings in our lit. use the word θ. w. ref. to Christ (without necessarily equating Christ with the Father, and therefore in harmony w. the Shema of Israel Dt 6:4; cp. **Mk 10:18 and 4a below)**, though the interpretation of some of the pass. is in debate.
[5] Clement of Alexandria Strom. V. 10.63 (c. 260 CE)
"And if, the Creator above all is confessed to be just, and the Lord to be the Son of the Creator; then the Lord is the Son of Him who is just. Wherefore also Paul says, "But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested; " and again, that you may better conceive of God, "even the righteousness of God by the faith of Jesus Christ upon all that believe; for there is no difference." And, witnessing further to the truth, he adds after a little, "through the forbearance of God, in order to show that He is just, and that Jesus is the justifier of him who is of faith." And that he knows that what is just is good, appears by his saying, "So that the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good," using both names to denote the same power. But "no one is good," except His Father." [ hEIS AGAQOS, hO PATHR ]
Hippolytus - haer. V.7.25 (pre-222 CE)
'They affirm, then, concerning the substance of the seed which is a cause of all existent things, that it is none of these, but that it produces and forms all things that are made, expressing themselves thus: "I become what I wish, and I am what I am: on account of this I say, that what puts all things in motion is itself unmoved. For what exists remains forming all things, and nought of existing things is made." He says that this (one) alone is good, and that what is spoken by the Saviour is declared concerning this (one): "Why do you say that am good? One is good, my Father which is in the heavens , [hEIS ESTIN AGAQOS, hO PATHR EN TOIS OURANOIS] who causeth His sun to rise upon the just and unjust, and sendeth rain upon saints and sinners."'
Justin Martyr - Dial. 101.2 (c. 150 CE)
"Then what follows of the Psalm is this, in which He says: `Our fathers trusted in Thee; they trusted, and Thou didst deliver them. They cried unto Thee, and were not confounded. But I am a worm, and no man; a reproach of men, and despised of the people; 'which show that He admits them to be His fathers, who trusted in God and were saved by Him, who also were the fathers of the Virgin, by whom He was born and became man; and He foretells that He shall be saved by the same God, but boasts not in accomplishing anything through His own will or might. For when on earth He acted in the very same manner, and answered to one who addressed Him as "Good Master": Why callest thou me good? One is good, my Father who is in heaven.' (Luke xviii. 18 f.)"
the Pseudo-Clementine Homiles XVI.3.4 (c. 260 CE)
"AT break of day, when Peter went forth to discourse, Simon anticipated him, and said: "When I went away yesterday, I promised to you to return to-day, and in a discussion show that he who flamed the world is not the highest God, but that the highest God is another who alone is good, and who has remained unknown up to this time. At once, then, state to me whether you maintain that the framer of the world is the same as the lawgiver or not? If, then, he is the lawgiver, he is just; but if he is just, he is not good. But if he is not good, then it was another that Jesus proclaimed, when he said, "Do not call me good; for one is good, the Father who is in the heavens.'" [hO GAR AGAQOS hEIS ESTIN, hO PATHR hO EN TOIS OURANOIS]
What text can NT Textual Criticism ultimately Reach?
[William L. Peterson -- New Testament Textual Criticism, Exegesis, and Early Church History, a Discussion of Methods, page 142, edited by Barbara Aland and Joel Delobel]
Justin, Dial. 101.2 hEIS ESTIN AGAQOS, hO PATHR MOU hO EN TOIS OURANOIS - "One is good, my Father in the heavens."
Taitian Diatessaron (c. 172 CE), as per Ephrem Syrus, Comm. on the Diatessaron, XV,9 (Syr & Arm] "Unus est bonus, Pater, qui in caelo [est]."
Irenaeus, haer. I.210.2 (pre-185 CE) "hEIS ESTIN AGAQOS, hO PATHR EN TOIS OURANOIS"
Hippolytus, haer. V.7.25 (pre-222 CE) "hEIS ESTIN AGAQOS, hO PATHR EN TOIS OURANOIS"
Clement of Alexandria, Strom. V.10.63 (c. 207 CE) "hEIS AGAQOS, hO PATHR"
the Pseudo-Clementine Homilies XVI.3.4 (c. 260 CE) "hO GAR AGAQOS hEIS ESTIN, hO PATHR hO EN TOIS OURANOIS"
Vetus Latina MS e (apud Matthew; V cent) "Unus est bonus, pater."
Vetus Latina MS d (apud Luke; V cent) "Nemo bonus misi unus Deus pater."
Jesus explains, not rebukes, to the person that nobody is as good as the one God. No one is good, not as much as the one God. No one is good for as much as the one God. No one is good as much as the one God is good. No one is that good as the one God. Nobody ain’t that good as the one God. Ain’t nobody as much good as the one God.
Does Mark 10:18 mean that everybody is evil and they’ll never be good? No.
Does Mark 10:18 mean that anything described as good can only be God? No.
Does Mark 10:18 mean that Jesus was explaining he was God? No.
Does Mark 10:18 mean that Jesus was yelling at the person like in the Blues Brothers: the nun scene? No, nothing like that at all. But the famous movie scene and perhaps the entire movie is perhaps a parody of Mark 10:15-28
That particular Greek word (18) ἀγαθὸς in Mark 10:18 is reserved typically for speaking of a divine good. A good that comes from God. So that probably makes no sense because people will remember John 16:8 where Jesus says that he came from the Father. However the gospel of Mark is not the gospel of John. The gospel of Mark does not include that specific saying of Jesus that is in the gospel of John.
In John 10:11 (2570) καλός is translated as meaning good. Jesus describes himself as the good shepard.
My interpretation of Mark 10:18 does not include theology that Jesus is referring to himself as God. And, the English Bible translations from the Greek are incorrect from my level of intellect. I believe that my interpretations are correct.
Does Jesus rebuke the person who called him good teacher? No, the text itself does not say that. Rebuke is a harsh and angry kind of response used to teach someone in a serious matter.
Does Jesus say that no one is good in Mark 10:18? No. Jesus says that no one is as good as the one God. It’s a comparison that God is more good than anyone. The verse does not mean that nobody is capable of doing or being good. However they are incapable of being and doing the level of good that God is capable of.
Ὁ δὲ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν αὐτῷ “Τί με λέγεις ἀγαθόν; οὐδεὶς ἀγαθὸς εἰ μὴ εἷς ὁ Θεός.
The (moreover) Ὁ δὲ Moreover is used to mean that the Jesus has previously spoken to this man in verses 13-16 (Jesus blesses the children). The person was part of the crowd being spoken to and because Jesus is now speaking to this person again the word “moreover” is used. The person runs up to Jesus as Jesus was leaving the crowd.
The moreover Jesus said (they) Ὁ δὲ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν αὐτῷ This is not specifically the vocative case where the ending of αὐτῷ, the epsilon is used to add emphasis and emotion. That is why I explained that Jesus is not rebuking this person. I’m not going to even attempt to figure out what gender the verbs are. The English translates it as a masculine. Hence the person Jesus speaks to is a him. And because the person is wealthy I think it’s safe to assume with the context of the story that a wealthy person is probably a male. A son who inherited a great fortune from his father. I ain’t no Greek scholar for sure.
What me you call good? Τί με λέγεις ἀγαθόν
Or (5092)? Τίμε λέγεις ἀγαθόν? Honor you say is good? That would require evidence that text written in unical continuous scrip was misinterpreted as being two words when it was only one word. The earliest known texts of Mark 10 are from the early fourth century, codex Vaticanus and codex Sinaiticus.
οὐδεὶς ἀγαθὸς εἰ μὴ εἷς ὁ Θεός. No one good as much as not one the God. Not no one good as much as the one God.
Honor you say is good? Not no one is as good as the one God.
Why me you say is good? No one is good for as much as the one God.
Matthew 5:45
Is nobody good? There is both evil people and good people.
ὅπως γένησθε υἱοὶ τοῦ Πατρὸς ὑμῶν τοῦ ἐν οὐρανοῖς, ὅτι τὸν ἥλιον αὐτοῦ ἀνατέλλει ἐπὶ πονηροὺς καὶ ἀγαθοὺς καὶ βρέχει ἐπὶ δικαίους καὶ ἀδίκους. KJV That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven: for he maketh his sun to rise on the evil and on the good, and sendeth rain on the just and on the unjust.
Matthew 7:11
εἰ οὖν ὑμεῖς πονηροὶ ὄντες οἴδατε δόματα ἀγαθὰ διδόναι τοῖς τέκνοις ὑμῶν, πόσῳ μᾶλλον ὁ Πατὴρ ὑμῶν ὁ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς δώσει ἀγαθὰ τοῖς αἰτοῦσιν αὐτόν. KJV If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children, how much more shall your Father which is in heaven give good things to them that ask him?
According the gospel of Matthew there is good besides the one God.
