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Most translations of the Our Father read something similar to the following:

Matthew 6:9-13 (ESV)

Our Father in heaven, hallowed be your name.

Your kingdom come, your will be done, on earth as it is in heaven.

Give us this day our daily bread, and forgive us our debts, as we also have forgiven our debtors.

And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil.

But I've found what claims to be a literal translation of the Lord's Prayer online:1

Father of ours who's in heaven,

hallowed be thy name of yours,

come thy kingdom of yours,

arise thy will of yours,

as in heaven, also on earth.

This bread of ours that's for the coming day give us this day.

And free us from these debts of ours

as also we have freed those debtors of ours.

And do not lead us into trial,

but draw us to you, away from that which is grievous .

In the last two petititons, it appears to be an invocation that I haven't read elsewhere:

"And do not lead us into trial, but draw us to you, away from that which is grievous ."

Question

Is "draw us to you" a valid translation of the Greek sources?2


1 http://pagenotes.com/prayer/LordsPrayer.html

2 The Greek (New Testament) sources can be found here [NA28].

  • You could improve this question by doing the following: 1) Quoting the relevant verses from the NT in your question from one of the more common translations (and of course, indicating which translation). 2) Indicate how the pagenotes version compares with several of the more common translations. You might also send an email to the pagenotes author to ask why he made the translation word choice that he did as opposed to using one of the more common translations choices. – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim Dec 4 '17 at 11:18
  • Also, pick a single line, such as "draw us to you" and not the whole prayer in one question. However, the answer is that "draw us to you" is not legit. – Ruminator Dec 4 '17 at 16:04
  • Your question refers to some verse from Matt 19:6-23 ... Do you, perhaps men Matt 6:9-13? What am I missing here! – robin Dec 8 '17 at 2:15
  • Your question refers to some verse from Matt 19:6-23 ... Do you, perhaps mean Matt 6:9-13? What am I missing here! And your specific (?) question, seems to be about the last line, "but draw us to you, away from that which is grievous" ... is that correct, am I, now, following your line of questioning, James? And, if so, I'd be more than willing to give you the actual words, from the Byzantine source texts (and any Alexandrian variants, if there be any), along with the appropriate declinations and parsings, in their original word order (syntax) ...interested? – robin Dec 8 '17 at 2:22
2

A Review of the Greek

More or less, this is a so-called 'literal' translation. Exept that it isn't even English in certain places (e.g. "thy will of yours").

On the site itself, it cites the Greek word corresponding to its translation in the text.

Here is the Greek for the prayer from Matthew 6,1 followed by how I would 'literally' translate them. I've bolded the words and their corresponding translation so you can see what is translating what. (The brackets denote helps for understanding the text, and are not translations of the text).

Πάτερ ἡμῶν ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς·

Father of us who [is] in heaven,

ἁγιασθήτω τὸ ὄνομά σου·

Treated-as-holy [may] the name of you [be].

ἐλθέτω ἡ βασιλεία σου·

Let-come the kingdom of you

γενηθήτω τὸ θέλημά σου,

Let-be-brought-about the will of you:

ὡς ἐν οὐρανῷ καὶ ἐπὶ γῆς·

As [it is] in heaven [so] also [let it be] on earth.

τὸν ἄρτον ἡμῶν τὸν ἐπιούσιον δὸς ἡμῖν σήμερον·

the bread of us for-[our]-sustenance give to us this day.

καὶ ἄφες ἡμῖν τὰ ὀφειλήματα ἡμῶν,

and forgive us the debts of us

ὡς καὶ ἡμεῖς ἀφήκαμεν τοῖς ὀφειλέταις ἡμῶν·

as also we forgive the debt-owers of us

καὶ μὴ εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς πειρασμόν,

And [do] not lead us into temptation

ἀλλὰ ῥῦσαι ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ.

But deliver us from [all] evil.

As you can see, the way of denoting the possessive (e.g. our trespasses) in Greek is to say 'the trespasses of us.' Which is translated, of course, 'our trespasses' as it should be in actual translations. Let this account for the awkwardness of some 'literal' translations which retain the word order as I have done (they aren't translations at all, since they only usually obscure the language, and don't translate it properly speaking).

'Debts' is an Aramaism for trespasses and wrongdoings against one's neighbour (sins), and is not a monetary debt in this context (this is why Luke has ἁμαρτίας—'sins' instead of—there can be no doubt—Jesus' original ὀφειλήματα—'debts').


Is "draw us to you" a valid translation of the Greek sources?

This is an attempt, according to the website itself, to translate ῥῦσαι, which means to 'deliver' or 'rescue' from something (the state of bondage or danger from which one needs delivered), implicitly, therefore, into something else (i.e. not that state).

They argue that the implicit object, implied in the verb, into which we are delivered is 'you' (God), but this isn't justified from the text. To deliver from evil or calamity, ill-fortune, wickedness etc, is not to say we are being delivered 'to God' but simply out of those things. To say 'God' is to presume too much.

This alone disqualifies it as a 'literal' translation so-called. Because it takes interpretative liberties usually reserved for more 'dynamic' translations, i.e. that used in most Bibles—this being a particularly 'dynamic' translation at that.

'That which is grevious' I would exchange for something which connotes the same thing most common translations do, as well as the word itself in Greek (πονηροῦ). 'all ills,' 'evil,' 'the bad,' 'all afflictions.' All that is an affront to peace with God (since it parallels πειρασμόν in the passage—tempation, trial, calamity). (the Latin Vulgate simply has malo—'evil,' as most translations do).

They have translated 'free' for ἄφες instead of 'forgive' where the context is clearly sins, and the New Testament uses ἀφίημι (the root verb) to be 'forgive' (i.e. forgive sins) all the time for example:

Ephesians 1:7 (ESV)

In him we have redemption through his blood, the forgiveness [τὴν ἄφεσιν] of our trespasses, according to the riches of his grace,

Obviously, God doesn't pay our debts for us: forgiveness of sins is meant here. The 'cancellation' of debts here obviously means 'forgiveness of sins'.

I hope this clears up something for you. If not, let me know.


1 Nestle-Aland Novum Testamentum Graece 28th Edition. Matthew 6:9-13.

  • ἀλλὰ ῥῦσαι ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ is also understood by many Greek Fathers to mean (though not necessarily exclusively), "deliver us from the evil one". It is translated that way to this day in the Eastern Orthodox Church. – user33515 Dec 4 '17 at 16:21
  • 1
    I would say that's a justified interpretation based on the parallelism between it and πειρασμόν which Satan is the master of. – Sola Gratia Dec 4 '17 at 16:26
  • It's always encouraging when someone agrees with the Church Fathers! – user33515 Dec 4 '17 at 16:41
  • Honor the Church Fathers and the your Mother the Church. Says me, a Catholic xD – Sola Gratia Dec 4 '17 at 17:10
  • I've had people on here argue that John Chrysostom misunderstood some of the Greek texts he explained because he never completed the equivalent of Ph.D. level studies in Biblical Greek. Someone with a very high rep. – user33515 Dec 4 '17 at 17:43

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