Was it common in ancient Hebrew to express permission by commanding a person to do what they asked for permission to do? For example, consider 1 Kings 22:
20 And the LORD said, Who shall persuade Ahab, that he may go up and fall at Ramothgilead? And one said on this manner, and another said on that manner. 21 And there came forth a spirit, and stood before the LORD, and said, I will persuade him. 22 And the LORD said unto him, Wherewith? And he said, I will go forth, and I will be a lying spirit in the mouth of all his prophets. And he said, Thou shalt persuade him, and prevail also: go forth, and do so. 23 Now therefore, behold, the LORD hath put a lying spirit in the mouth of all these thy prophets, and the LORD hath spoken evil concerning thee.
Did God necessarily command the spirit to lie, or did He simply express His allowance of the spirit to lie? Was the so-called "permissive imperative" commonly used in Hebrew, or used at all?
Also, a question by extension would be whether or not God actually put the spirit into the mouth of the prophets or simply allowed the spirit to enter into them.