The Question Essentially
Is it possible that God's name is a nominal version of the third person masculine singular verb to exist or to be: יהיה.
This seems at once to be 'to simple to be true' and reinventing the wheel(given that no one really seems to know the meaning of the Tetragrammaton), but I'm asking it anyway.
(See my related question here).
What makes me think this is a passage in the Book of Revelation, where Jesus uses "He that liveth" as a title or name of "the First and the Last." Together with the Septuagintic translation of Exodus 3:14.
Revelation 1:17-18 (W&H w/ NA27) (translation mine)
Καὶ ὅτε εἶδον αὐτόν, ἔπεσα πρὸς τοὺς πόδας αὐτοῦ ὡς νεκρός· καὶ ἔθηκεν τὴν δεξιὰν αὐτοῦ ἐπ' ἐμὲ λέγων Μὴ φοβοῦ· ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ πρῶτος καὶ ὁ ἔσχατος, καὶ ὁ ζῶν καὶ ἐγενόμην νεκρὸς καὶ ἰδοὺ ζῶν εἰμὶ εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας τῶν αἰώνων καὶ ἔχω τὰς κλεῖς τοῦ θανάτου καὶ τοῦ ᾅδου.
And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. And he placed his right hand on me, saying, Fear not, I am the First and the Last, even He that liveth. And I was dead, but see: I live forever; and I hold the keys of Death and hell.
There is good reason, I think, to see "He that liveth" as proper title or name for "the First and the Last," namely, the God of Israel:
"the First and the Last" is only used of God, and is a title of His. Signifying, of course, His eternal nature and unique status as such, as God (Rev 22:13; cf. Isa 43:10-11; 44:6).
This και would definitely seem to be appositive rather than adjunctive, and it's obviously not adversative.
It's simply the most natural reading.
(I would note that the verse transition was misplaced in this passage, by whoever did it, and verse 18 ought to have started at 'And I was dead')
If this is the case, and God is titled or called "He that liveth," could this explain the translation of Exodus 3:14 in the Septuagint (LXX)?
Exodus 3:13 (LXX/Brenton):
And Moses said to God, Behold, I shall go forth to the children of Israel, and shall say to them, The God of our fathers has sent me to you; and they will ask me, What is his name? What shall I say to them?
Exodus 3:14 (LXX) (translation mine)
καὶ εἶπεν ὁ θεὸς πρὸς Μωυσῆν ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν καὶ εἶπεν οὕτως ἐρεῖς τοῖς υἱοῖς Ισραηλ ὁ ὢν ἀπέσταλκέν με πρὸς ὑμᾶς
And God said unto Moses, I am the Being One [or, 'He that is'], and thus you shall say to the children of Israel, He that is has sent me unto you.
Needless to say, it's not exactly a stretch from 'Living One' (ὁ ζῶν) as opposed to, or as another sense of, 'Being One' (ὁ ῶν), as in Revelation 1:18/Exodus 3:14.
Could these two be synonymous translations of ('the Living,' 'the Being'), and thus the meaning in reality, of the Tetragrammaton?
Thanks in advance.
1 If not 'He that liveth' as a primary understanding, then as an accidental meaning('Who exists, and therefore lives forever'). The name Eve (חַוָּה) is directly explained in the Hebrew text itself as 'life' (Gn 3:20), even though the root clearly appears to be this verb of 'to exist'). My Hebrew is nowhere near good enough to say either way, hence this question.