1 Corinthians:13.1 Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, but have not love, I have become sounding brass or a clanging cymbal.

The word tongues in the passage is the greek word glossa. Here is the Thayer Definition.


Original: γλῶσσα

Transliteration: glōssa

Thayer Definition: The language or dialect used by a particular people distinct from that of other nations

God divided the tongues of men in Gen 11:7. But in this passage, Paul uses the plural "tongues" in a way that suggests a multiplicity of languages among angels in the same way it exists among men.

QUESTION: 1) Did paul think angels differed in their tongues?

a) If yes, how could he have arrived at such a view.

b) Was there anything in the Pharisaical doctrines of the day to support his phrasing of 1-cor 13:1?

  • Why why. This is an important question to me. You just down vote irresponsibly without offering any justification.
    – user20490
    Nov 28 '17 at 12:29
  • I need to know why you down voted so that I can improve on future questions.
    – user20490
    Nov 28 '17 at 12:55
  • I down voted this question because it can only be answered based on opinion.
    – Bagpipes
    Nov 28 '17 at 12:56
  • 2
    Asking if angels have tongues is a very different question from asking whether Paul thought angels have their own language(s) and what his basis for this might be. We don't deal with the former here, but could help with the latter.
    – Dan
    Nov 28 '17 at 16:58
  • 1
    @Bagpipes thanks for giving me your reason. I've edited the question.
    – user20490
    Nov 28 '17 at 18:15