In Psalm 146:8 it is asserted by a Jew to the Jews that God gives sight to blind people. The context seems to suggest that a physical blindness is being referred to rather than a spiritual one:
NIV Psalm 146:8 the Lord gives sight to the blind, the Lord lifts up those who are bowed down, the Lord loves the righteous.
There is no evidence that this ever occurred until Jesus did so, when he healed the man born blind:
NASB John 9:32“Since the beginning of time it has never been heard that anyone opened the eyes of a person born blind.
In addition Jesus raised up a woman physically bowed down:
NASB Luke 13: 10Now he was teaching in one of the synagogues on the Sabbath, 11and a woman was there who had been disabled by a spirit for eighteen years. She was bent over and could not straighten herself up completely. 12When Jesus saw her, he called her to him and said, “Woman, you are freed from your infirmity.” 13Then he placed his hands on her, and immediately she straightened up and praised God.
And since Jesus I don't see any evidence that God was in the habit of healing blind people.
So is Psalm 146 to be understood to only refer to the ministry of the messiah?
Alternatively, is "open [the eyes of] the blind" just a figure of speech, referring to "giving understanding"?