I'm having difficulty with this passage. In Psalms 45:7-8 (MT):
כִּסְאֲךָ֣ אֱ֭לֹהִים עוֹלָ֣ם וָעֶ֑ד שֵׁ֥בֶט מִ֝ישֹׁ֗ר שֵׁ֣בֶט מַלְכוּתֶֽךָ
אָהַ֣בְתָּ צֶּדֶק֮ וַתִּשְׂנָ֫א רֶ֥שַׁע עַל־כֵּ֤ן ׀ מְשָׁחֲךָ֡ אֱלֹהִ֣ים אֱ֭לֹהֶיךָ שֶׁ֥מֶן שָׂשׂ֗וֹן מֵחֲבֵרֶֽךָ
For which the English translation (Psalms 45:6) is
Your throne, O God, is forever and ever; A scepter of uprightness is the scepter of Your kingdom. You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; Therefore God, Your God, has anointed
I don't know how the author of Psalms could have referred to a King as God in this verse. Would a better translation for "elohim" in here simply be "judge"?
Next, the author of Hebrews quotes this verse and applies it to the Son at Hebrews 1:8-9:
But about the Son He says: “Your throne, O God, will last forever and ever, and righteousness will be the scepter of Your kingdom. You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, Your God, has placed You above Your companions by anointing You with the oil of joy..
Why did the author of Hebrews take this arguably mistranslated passage and apply it to the Son?