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No specific Bible verse to quote, but it's something I've heard tossed around before. Can anyone confirm the validity of this claim? It went something along the lines of,

"When Moses is writing the Pentateuch, he uses a specific form of Hebrew that is polished and refined. When he quotes himself in conversation with God, however, the Hebrew 'dialect' that YHWH and he use is like that of a husband speaking with his wife."

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