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This is found in Jeremiah 3:8 (NIV)

I gave faithless Israel her certificate of divorce and sent her away because of all her adulteries. Yet I saw that her unfaithful sister Judah had no fear; she also went out and committed adultery.

Following the judgment of being put in other nations was Israel subjected to obey the laws and culture of the land? This question is more from a historical view. Is Israel divorced from God but can be brought back by Christ the Groom? Which is seen in the return of the nation at the return of Christ?

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    To the "close" voters: This question was much on the minds of the exiles in Babylon. It appeared to many that in fact God had abrogated the covenant of Abraham, i.e granted a get, a bill of divorce. The question is answerable from other OT prophetic texts that use both the language of marriage vows and the language of covenant. – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim Jul 30 '17 at 13:32
  • This verse and title question are interesting, but the post needs focus. I think you're asking what 'divorce' in Jer.3:8 means for northern Israel -- destroyed by Assyria a century earlier -- and for southern Judah, YHWH's new 'wife'. That's a valid question here. But what has that to do with the 2nd question, about Israelite captives in Assyria? That appears unrelated to me. The 3rd and 4th questions (about Christ) are about Christian theology, not the exegesis of Jer.3:8, so also off-topic here, IMO. I think this post should focus just on the title question. – Schuh Jul 30 '17 at 21:47
  • I agree with @AbuMunirIbnIbrahim that this shouldn't be closed. It's not a typical 'exegete this specific verse', but we're still in the realm of hermeneutics. A strong answer would not be a straightforward theological exposition, but a survey of how later biblical authors (and other early interpreters) broach the idea, whether they interact with the text of Jeremiah directly or not. – user2910 Jul 30 '17 at 23:40
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Far from divorcing the Jewish people (Israel), God has made a new covenant with them. If God had divorced Israel, all believers could not belong, as one people, in the body of the church:

There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus (Galatians 3:28)

However, in Romans 11, and Romans 11:25 in particular, Paul does speak of a "hardening in part" of Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has "come in":

I do not want you to be ignorant of this mystery, brothers and sisters, so that you may not be conceited: Israel has experienced a hardening in part until the full number of the Gentiles has come in

  • Thank you; I have edited the comment. I hope this makes the comment more appropriate to this forum. More feedback is welcome – l_ruth_ Jul 30 '17 at 7:49
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    Ok, at least you are trying to support your point using verses. I see someone downvoted, but take heart, that's part of the give-and -take. – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim Jul 30 '17 at 13:25
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    I didn't see the earlier comment (now deleted), but this answer may be down-voted because it's theological, not exegetical. That's not entirely your fault since the poster erroneously asks for theological input. But generally, a good answer on this site will help uncover the original meaning and context of the specific text being considered (e.g. Jer.3:8), not merely counter-argue from a completely different text. This Q&A may be helpful: hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/5325/6884 – Schuh Jul 30 '17 at 21:07

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