In Revelation 3:20 (KJV) Jesus says:
"Behold, I stand at the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me."
The Greek verb translated "stand" (esteka) is in the perfect active indicative tense, thus referring to a past action with continuing results. It could be translated as "having stood." On the other hand, the verb for "knock" (krouo) is in the present active indicative, indicating a present action. Is Jesus here presented as having already stood at the door? How then can he be knocking in the present?
I realize this text was originally addressed to the church of Laodicea, even though it is now used in personal evangelism. The church was being given its final opportunity to repent of its failures. But why do these verbs not seem to agree with each other? Was it a way of indicating that the opportunity to be restored was almost finished?