The Greek for Luke 1:28 is:
καὶ εἰσελθὼν πρὸς αὐτὴν εἶπεν “Χαῖρε, κεχαριτωμένη, ὁ Κύριος * μετὰ σοῦ ⧼εὐλογημένη σὺ * ἐν γυναιξίν⧽
*Verb 'to be' lacking.
Part 1) Could it be thus translated, in perhaps a more dynamic sense?
And [Gabriel], having come in unto her, said: Greetings, thou that art engraced; [you and] the Lord with thee [i.e. Jesus]; ⧼O blessed among women!⧽
I'm not convinced that this is what is being said, or was intended. And my Greek is only preliminary. I hop along with my interlinears and concordances and such. Hence, my question.
My question would not be valid here unless I asked if this could have been at least an interpretation that would have been expected to be interpreted thus, or a secondary meaning or nuance that would have been apparent to the Greek-speaking reader—might it have jumped out at the reader while reading, or is it simply grammatically ridiculous?
Part 2) I'm aware that the verb 'to be' is omitted elsewhere in Scripture.
I'm not ignorant of this.
See v. 33 for an example of the verb 'to be' used again (estai).
What is the significance of these omissions, as it seems to simply be for emphatic reasons or something similar; or from translating, perhaps, a short phrase from a Semitic 'original' which naturally omits such (1 Corinthians 1:24?)—perhaps due to an already familiar liturgical or hymn use (as alleged for Philippians 2:5-11) being reflected in the written Gospel?
Thanks in advance. Apologies for the lengthy question.