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I was asked if anal sex is a sin, and I could not find any biblical reference of indication either way. The closest I could find was Ro. 1:27; "committing indecent acts (the shameless deed NASB)." However, "the unseemliness [working]" (Strongs 2716, katergazomai: to work out) only seems to indicate that shameful (homosexual) acts were completed. But in the context of Ro. 1:24-32, does verse 27 refer to acts which would be shameful no matter who they were performed with, or does it refer to all acts in the homosexual sense as shameful?

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  • Re your answer post: if you have something to clarify about this question that makes it's scope different from the one marked as a duplicate please edit this question post to reflect the actual clarified question. If the question matches the site guidelines and is different from the other question it could be re-opened. Not that an answer post was not the right place to clarify the question itself. Thanks for understanding. – Caleb May 21 '17 at 5:40
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    Men with men (homosexual), and women with women (homosexual) is the whole point of Romans 1. This is contrasted with "the natural use of the woman". – Sola Gratia Jun 7 '17 at 20:03

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