6

1 Samuel 10:1 Complete Jewish Bible (CJB):

Then Sh’mu’el took a flask of oil he had prepared and poured it on Sha’ul’s head. He kissed him and said, “Adonai has anointed you to be prince over his inheritance.

I am familiar with the anointing with oil, but was wondering why Samuel kiss Saul? When David is anointed in a similar fashion no kiss takes place.

1 Samuel 16:13 Complete Jewish Bible (CJB):

Sh’mu’el took the horn of oil and anointed him there in his brothers’ presence. From that day on, the Spirit of Adonai would fall upon David with power. So Sh’mu’el set out and went to Ramah.

  • 1
    The mere presence of the word why presupposes that some amount of forethought or intention must have been involved. But what if there wasn't any ? Then the very question is wrongly phrased, and wrong questions can never beget correct answers, since their very essence is corrupt. Or perhaps Samuel felt understandably more emotional upon consecrating Israel's first king ever, then he did the second time around. As an aside, the gestures from the quoted passage somehow remind me of Luke 15:20-23. – Lucian Jul 27 '17 at 18:05
0

To kiss both cheeks is a common form of greeting and respect in middle eastern countries.

The omission of the detail at David's anointing doesn't mean it didn't occur, it simply wasn't mentioned.

  • I agree that this is a possibility, but the problem then becomes. why does the writer include it in one instance and conceals it in the next. – Ted DeRose Apr 20 '17 at 19:26
  • Consider citing internal Biblical arguments such as Genesis 27:27, 29:11, 48:10, 50:1, Exodus 4:27, 18:7, II Samuel 14:33, 19:39 and others to support your argument. What is common about these instances that is different from the occasion of the anointing of David? There is no indication of a kiss on both cheeks in the OP citation. The practice that you cite is also common in parts of Europe, no need to go all the way to the middle East. – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim Apr 21 '17 at 12:12
0

Because Saul became a king after Samuel poured oil to anoint him, and as a king , Samuel kissed him, (could be his hand) to honor him. As in Psalms we see when the king was anointed "Yet have I set my king upon my holy hill of Zion" (Ps. 2:6 KJV) then he was meant to be kissed "Kiss the Son..." (Ps. 2:12 KJV). Samuel probably did not kiss David because Saul was still technically a king, even after David's anointment we read in Samuel 24:6 that David referred to Saul as "Master" and "Lord's Anointed".

  • Welcome to BH-SE! Please make sure you take our Tour. (See below left) Thanks. – John Martin Apr 2 '19 at 23:06
-1

R. Solomon Alkabetz and R. Moses Alshikh explain that because Saul was from the House of Benjamin, not Judah, he did not truly deserve to hold the kingship, so Samuel had to "kiss" him to give from his own spirit to supplement Saul's ability/right to the throne. R. Betzalel Ashkenazi explains that Samuel kissed Saul in order to symbolize that even as Saul will ascends to greatness, he will still remain "attached" to Samuel, even though Samuel will be subordinate to him. Source: https://books.google.co.il/books?id=qQ9zCgAAQBAJ&lpg=PT50&dq=%D7%A8%D7%90%D7%95%D7%91%D7%9F%20%D7%97%D7%99%D7%99%D7%9D%20%D7%A7%D7%9C%D7%99%D7%9F%20%D7%A0%D7%A9%D7%99%D7%A7%D7%94&pg=PT50#v=onepage&q=%22%D7%A0%D7%A9%D7%99%D7%A7%D7%94%20%D7%A9%D7%9C%20%D7%92%D7%93%D7%95%D7%9C%D7%94%22&f=false

  • What support is there in the MT itself for the view that the king must come from the tribe of Judah? If Saul wasn't worthy of the position then why did God explicitly command Samuel to anoint Saul in I Samuel 9:15? Where does the idea of a kiss transferring something spiritual come from? Did Moses kiss Joshua, or Elijah kiss Elisha? These explanations read late theological ideas back into the text and raise more questions that they answer. – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim Apr 21 '17 at 12:26
  • See Genesis 49:10. – Reb Chaim HaQoton Apr 24 '17 at 11:15
  • Re Genesis 49:10, this verse is part of a prophecy of Jacob. It is not a commandment in anyone's counting of the commandments and the simple meaning of the verse (פשט) is not clear to anyone. There is in fact no such commandment that the king must come from Judah, only that the king cannot be a stranger (Deuteronomy 17:15). And in fact, David and Solomon were the only kings over all of the house of Jacob until the return from exile, so the prophecy was never fulfilled. – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim Apr 24 '17 at 12:06

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.