Psalm 20:8 in the Hebrew reads:
אֵלֶּה בָרֶכֶב וְאֵלֶּה בַסּוּסִים וַאֲנַחְנוּ ׀ בְּשֵׁם־יְהוָה אֱלֹהֵינוּ נַזְכִּֽיר
for which the ESV (v.7) gives:
Some trust in chariots and some in horses,
but we trust in the name of the LORD our God.
My question is about the word translated "trust", which is a hifil from zkr ("to remember"), a fairly common form that means, as expected, "cause to remember". BDB and other lexicons describe an understandable extension to "to mention". DCH takes it as "invoke", which I also understand. I don't understand how the ESV gets "trust". I realize that by invoking the name of the LORD this is probably an expression of trust, but the ESV usually doesn't make such leaps for the reader, and there is certainly other available Hebrew vocabulary if the author intended "trust", so I'm wondering if there's something I'm missing.
Perhaps relevant, this verb only appears in the second line, and is understood in most modern translations as applying to the first as well (where "invoke" would be more difficult). The KJV apparently thought the initial verb could be deduced from context without being gapped from the following line. The italics indicate the lack of a corresponding word in the Hebrew:
Some trust in chariots, and some in horses: but we will remember the name of the LORD our God.
My questions, then:
Is it necessary (or likely, according to normative poetic syntax, if such exists) that the same verb be understood in both lines?
Can/should the hifil zkr be understood as "to trust"?