In both the Douay-Rheims and its source, the Vulgate, the word καταφάγεταί (future tense) is translated as a verb in the perfect tense.
And his disciples remembered, that it was written: The zeal of thy house hath eaten me up.
Recordati sunt vero discipuli ejus quia scriptum est: Zelus domus tuae comedit me.
Here is the original Greek.
ἐμνήσθησαν οἱ μαθηταὶ αὐτοῦ ὅτι γεγραμμένον ἐστίν· ὁ ζῆλος τοῦ οἴκου σου καταφάγεταί με.*
(My translation) His disciples remembered that it was written: The zeal of your house will consume me.
The question is quite technical and a bit pedantic, but it still baffles me, why would a verb which is clearly future tense be translated as a perfect?
Here is the parsing of καταφάγεταί on the Perseus word study tool.