Exodus chapter 27:10- chapter 30:10 the Torah portion of T'zaveh, omits the mention of Moses in it's entirety. It is the only Torah portion to do so from the time of Moses birth to the very end of Deuteronomy. What is the reason for the omission?
if you don't consider the fact that it is omitted from an entire Parsha, the question seems to be obtuse. As N.Ish pointed out, the name Moses is omitted in 5 complete chapters. So this question is really based on the way the Rabbis decided to divide the five books of the Torah into smaller portions or Parshiyot. Furthermore, this question pertains to the field of Derush. It is not a strictly hermeneutical question! Actually Stack exchange has forum for people like you that want to learn more about the Parsha. check it out, you might want to post your question there. see the link below https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions
i also found your same exact question there, see the link below https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/5764/moshes-name-is-missing
i also attached other links that might be helpful http://torah.org/torah-portion/hamaayan-5772-tetzaveh/ http://torah.org/torah-portion/ravfrand-5770-tetzaveh/
Well Moses's name is not used from Exodus 25:2 until 30:11. I'm not sure I truly understand the question here. But in 25:1 The Lord spake unto Moses then 30:11 The Lord spake unto Moses. So 25:2 - 30:10 is what The Lord spake unto Moses. It's not omitting anything, Moses isn't missing, God's speaking to Moses From 25:1 through 30:10.
I hope that is of some benefit. God bless.