Zerubbabel was mentioned in both Matthew and Luke as an ancestor of Jesus. But the texts present two problems for me:
How does Jesus's genealogy diverge at Solomon/Nathan, converge on Shealtiel and Zerubbabel, then diverge again at Abiud/Rhesa? By the time of Shealtiel, the two lineages would have been too far apart for levirate marriage to be valid.
How comes none of Zerubbabel's sons named in the gospels can be found in 1 Chronicles 3:17-24?
Please note that this is a different question from "why does Christ have two different genealogies" like so many people seem to think. I am specifically focusing on Zerubabel, not Jesus. And "levirate marriage" some like to give to solve any and all genealogical difficulties simply does not apply here. (See Deut. 25:5-6. It applies to brothers, not to distant cousins many times removed.)