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In Deuteronomy 18:8, we read that a Levite will sell his land and home under certain circumstances.

Often we read about land and home being redeemed, whether through marriage, purchased back through legal right, or Jubilee. However, all records that I know of involve redemption of inheritance, and we know that "The Levites shall have no inheritance with Israel." (Deuteronomy 18:1 and many others)

May I assume that a Levitical patrimony will not be redeemed? What does the grammar and definition behind the "sale of his patrimony" phrase tell us about the duration of the sale?

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In Leviticus 25:32-33, it is stated that if the Levites sold that which pertained to their cities, then they could redeem it at anytime, and if not, it would be returned to them in the Jubilee. The subsequent verse however concedes that the land which surrounded these cities could not be sold.

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  • Yes, that is the one. Guess I didn't need Hebrew fluency, I could have also just looked back 20 chapters.
    – CWilson
    Jan 29 '17 at 2:39

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