(KJV)1 Corinthians 10:31-33

Whether therefore ye eat, or drink, or whatsoever ye do, do all to the glory of God. [32] Give none offence, neither to the Jews, nor to the Gentiles, nor to the church of God: [33] Even as I please all men in all things , not seeking mine own profit, but the profit of many, that they may be saved.

(KJV)1 Corinthians 11:1

Be ye followers of me, even as I also am of Christ.

(KJV)1 Corinthians 11:2-5

Now I praise you, brethren, that ye remember me in all things, and keep the ordinances, as I delivered them to you. [3] But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God. [4] Every man praying or prophesying, having his head covered, dishonoureth his head. [5] But every woman that prayeth or prophesieth with her head uncovered dishonoureth her head: for that is even all one as if she were shaven.

The first verse in chapter 11 seems to belong to the previous chapter,it is the conclusion of the discussion which the apostle had been carrying out in the previous chapter

Chapter 11 is clearly divided into two parts

1)A discussion respecting the improprieties of a woman's praying or prophesying with her head uncovered (1 cor 11:2-16)

2)A reproof of their irregularities in the observance of the Lord's supper (1 for 11:17-34) is the first verse in its proper place

  • Are you questioning the reasoning behind the placement of the post-biblical chapter/verse division? If so are you suggesting chapters should be seen as thematic blocks, rather than seeing the epistle as a coherent whole? Can you clarify your intent in the question?
    – r m
    Commented Jan 5, 2017 at 20:07

1 Answer 1


A man named Stephen Langton divided the Bible into chapters in the 13th century. Later verses were added by other people. While they were added for the sake of convenience to quote and reference, they were human made and so are arbitrary.

It is entirely possible that 1 Cor 11:1 belongs in the previous chapter. We don't have the original manuscripts so we can't be 100% certain but we do have copies of manuscripts that show that there were no chapters or verses recorded.


Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.