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In 1 Cor. 15:28, it is written,

28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all. KJV, 1769

ΚΗʹ ὅταν δὲ ὑποταγῇ αὐτῷ τὰ πάντα τότε καὶ αὐτὸς ὁ υἱὸς ὑποταγήσεται τῷ ὑποτάξαντι αὐτῷ τὰ πάντα ἵνα ᾖ ὁ θεὸς τὰ πάντα ἐν πᾶσιν TR, 1550

What does it mean that God will “may be all in all” («τὰ πάντα ἐν πᾶσιν»)?1


Footnotes

1 The exact phrase «τὰ πάντα ἐν πᾶσιν» also occurs in 1 Cor. 12:6, and a similar phrase occurs in Col. 3:11 («τὰ πάντα καὶ ἐν πᾶσιν») and Eph. 1:23 («πάντα ἐν πᾶσιν»).

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And when ... - In this future time, when this shall be accomplished. This implies that the time has not yet arrived, and that his dominion is now exercised, and that he is carrying forward his plans for the subjugation of all things to God.

Shall be subdued unto him - Shall be brought under subjection. When all his enemies shall be overcome and destroyed; or when the hearts of the redeemed shall be entirely subject to God. When God's kingdom shall be fully established over the universe. It shall then be seen that he is Lord of all. In the previous verses he had spoken of the promise that all things should be subjected to God; in this, he speaks of its being actually done.

Then shall the Son also himself be subject ... - It has been proposed to render this, "even then shall the Son," etc.; implying that he had been all along subject to God; had acted under his authority; and that this subjection would continue even then in a sense similar to that in which it had existed; and that Christ would then continue to exercise a delegated authority over his people and kingdom.

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God's presence is continuous throughout all of creation.Interesting that when Kingdom finished on Earth Bible says Christ will turn all over to HIS FATHER and step down that GOD may BE all in ALL. Would mean GOD becomes everything person by being written in their minds hearts recreating HIMSELF to BE massive presence everywhere expressed

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    You say that 'Bible says' but you have not said where it says that. Without citing references, you are expressing personal opinion, which is off-topic.
    – Nigel J
    Dec 5 '17 at 1:47
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Nigel, here is what the Bible says:

"For He must be reigning until He should be placing all His enemies under His feet." 1 Cor. 15:25

NOTE: Christ reigns "UNTIL," not "FOR EVER AND EVER," as Rev.11:15 erroneously states in the common MIS-translations. The Greek original reads "τοὺς αἰῶνας τῶν αἰώνων" which litterally translated is "unto the eons of the eons." The expression "eons of the eons" may be difficult to understand at first but it is no more difficult than "Lord of lords," "Holy of Holies," or "Holies of Holies." Christ is called "Lord of lords" in the Scriptures. He may also be called "Son of sons," "Prophet of prophets" so "that in all He may be becoming first" (Col. 1:18). Same principle applies here... the "eons of the eons" are the two most important eons of the eons created by God (Heb. 1:2). NO, it's not "world", "worlds," or "universe," as the common MIS-translations have it, but EONS (Gr. " αἰῶνας"). By the way, if you want to see further evidence of the BUTCHERING of the Word of God, witness this translation of the Greek "πάντα ἐν πᾶσιν" (All in all). The NLT ("New Living Translation") has these words "God... will be utterly supreme over everything everywhere." So, tell me Nigel, is this this the Word of God, or is it personal opinion?

After "nullifying all sovereignty and all authority and power" (v.24) Christ abolishes the LAST enemy - DEATH (v.26) - and is "giving up the kingdom to His God and Father (v,24).

NOTES:

  1. The death in view here is the SECOND DEATH, i.e. the LAKE OF FIRE. (Rev. 20:14b) as it is the ONLY death still in operation at this time. The FIRST DEATH, as well as the UNSEEN (Gr. "Hades") were previously thrown into THE LAKE OF FIRE (v.14a)

  2. Christ is giving up the perfected Kingdom "TO HIS GOD AND FATHER." Now, all Christians know that Jesus has a Father, but how many know that He also has a God?

"Now, whenever all may be subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also shall be subjected to Him Who subjects all to Him, that God may be All in all. (v.28)

Nigel, you are correct: One should refrain from making statements which represent personal opinion and should instead study to Word of God - DILIGENTLY AND IN ITS ORIGINAL LANGUAGES. And only then will one be properly equipped to boldly proclaim a loving "God, Who conciliates us to Himself through Christ, and is giving us the dispensation of the conciliation, how that God was in Christ, conciliating the world to Himself, not reckoning their offenses to them, and placing in us the word of the conciliation."(2 Cor. 5:18-19) This is what those who are "ambassadors for Christ" (v.20) do. I hope that you will follow suit.

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