Matt 4:14-16: That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, The land of Zabulon, and the land of Nephthalim, by the way of the sea, beyond Jordan, Galilee of the Gentiles; The people which sat in darkness saw great light; and to them which sat in the region and shadow of death light is sprung up.
Matt 4:15-16 is quoting from Isa 9:1-2:
Isa 9:1-2: But there will be no gloom for her who was in anguish. In the former time he brought into contempt the land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, but in the latter time he has made glorious the way of the sea, the land beyond the Jordan, Galilee of the nations.
In Isa 9:1, the Hebrew expression גְּלִיל הַגֹּויִֽם (Galilee of the nations) is referring specifically to the nations of the House of Israel, referencing the rebellious tribal lands of the Israelite tribes Zabulon and Nephthalim.
Yet in the Matt 4:15 verse, the Greek expression Γαλιλαία τῶν ἐθνῶν (Galilee of the Gentiles) has the word ἐθνῶν, meaning 'nations', translated by Christian scholars instead as Gentiles - ignoring the plain meaning of the word. Incidentally ἐθνῶν is never translated in ancient secular Greek texts as Gentiles showing that this translation of the word is reserved only for NT translators.
Furthermore, if we examine the Septuagint, or Greek OT, the expression appearing in Isa meaning "Galilee of the nations" is the same Greek expression we see in Matt or Γαλιλαία τῶν ἐθνῶν.
Doesn't this mistranslation completely change the meaning of Matt from the quoted Isaiah verse cited; AND doesn't this contradict the OT Isa 9:1 changing Galilee from a land of Israelites to a land of Gentiles?