I don't understand the basis for dual fulfillment, specifically as referenced:

Now when they had departed, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph in a dream and said, “Rise, take the child and his mother, and flee to Egypt, and remain there until I tell you, for Herod is about to search for the child, to destroy him.” And he rose and took the child and his mother by night and departed to Egypt and remained there until the death of Herod. This was to fulfill what the Lord had spoken by the prophet, “Out of Egypt I called my son.”—Matthew 2:13-15 (ESV)

Matthew says that Jesus's flight to and return from Egypt is a fulfillment of Hosea 11:1: "Out of Egypt I called my son". But upon reading Hosea 11, the chapter seems to be talking only about Israel's disobedience and his enduring love for them. Following the idea of parallelism in Hebrew poetry, the line "Out of Egypt I called my son" would be paired with the line "When Israel is a child, I loved him". This to me supports the idea that Hosea 11 is speaking of Israel, and not intended to be Messianic prophecy.

Why then does Matthew consider Jesus's flight to and return from Israel to be a fulfillment of Hosea 11:1?



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