I would like a good koine greek expert to explain the greek of this verse to me.
Because in my rusty greek, I am reading this as (which is probably not precise) ...
- ἐὰν μὴ
- ὁ κόκκος τοῦ σίτου
- the kernel of grain
- πεσὼν εἰς τὴν γῆν
- falls into the earth
αὐτὸς μόνος μένει
- it remains alone
ἐὰν δὲ ἀποθάνῃ
- but-if dying-off
- πολὺν καρπὸν φέρει
- many fruits it bears
Questions concerning the linguistics. My adherence is linguistics defines the doctrine, rather than allowing doctrine to define the linguistics. So I want this to be first purely a linguistic exercise.
Is ἀποθάνῃ an instantaneous demise, or as the ἀπο prefix suggests, the effects from the dying which implies a process thereafter?
Combinatorially, the logic table allows four cases. Let's use A and B as the binary algebraic variables.
- A = falls into the earth
- B = goes thro after death process (or whatever the actual meaning of ἀποθάνῃ)
These are the four quadrants of the logic table
- A=1,B=1 = falls into earth and has after death experience
- A=1,B=0 = falls into earth and doesn't have after death experience
- A=0,B=1 = does not fall into earth, but has after death experience
- A=0,B=0 = does not fall into earth, and doesn't have after death experience
The question set-up by #2 and #3 - which of the four logic cases does the resultants R1 and R2 map to?
- R1 = remain alone
- R2 = bears many fruits
There is actually only one big question. But first we have to define ἀποθάνῃ. And then the actual question - what is the mapping for stimuli to resultants?
- A=1,B=1 => R2 (obviously)
- A=1,B=0 => R1 or undefined?
- A=0,B=1 => R1 or undefined?
- A=0,B=0 => R1 (obviously)