I see several ways to understand the meaning of Paul's phrase "all things are lawful" in 1 Cor 6:12 and 1 Cor 10:23. "Lawful" could refer to:
- Things not specifically forbidden in the Bible; one doesn't assume those are sin. Thus all has a limited sense, referring to non-sinful things.
- Things that are sin, but people in the unbelieving world approve of them. This is supported by 1 Cor 6:1-2: the locals think it's fine to settle disputes in court (a law court, mind you), but saints should have a whole different perspective.
- Things that were sin because of the power of the Law; in Christ that power is broken, the offense is removed, so nothing is "unlawful".
Grosheide's commentary1 takes the first view. A quick check on the Internet shows general agreement on this view.
I'd like to know if another view can be supported. (It's easy to marshal arguments for the first view, so there is no need to labor there too much.)
In considering alternative approaches, I am not contrarian, nor antinomian. I simply don't want to overlook any possibility that could, in fact, accord with Paul's original argument. As a parenthetical note, we can feel pretty sure Paul is making use of a known expression. Therefore we wish we knew who was using it and how. This uncertainty about the context presses us to a more thorough consideration that may include some less-obvious angles.
1 F.W. Grosheide. Commentary on the First Epistle to the Corinthians (Eerdmans, 1953).