Dr Robert Young, who is author of Young’s Analytical Concordance and Hints To Bible Interpretation, (and possibly some others too) claims that some Hebrew verbs are in "permissive" rather than "causative" sense.
I did some research, and the way I see it is that the Hebrew does not have a "permissive" sense in of itself. But, rather, the permissive sense is derived from the context. Is my understanding correct?
What do you make from the Exodus 4:21 verse?
The LORD said to Moses, "When you return to Egypt, see that you perform before Pharaoh all the wonders I have given you the power to do. But I will harden his heart so that he will not let the people go.
How can we know if the "will" is in passive or active sense? In plain words, did god cause Pharaoh's heart to be hardened, or did he allow it?