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I stumbled across this book trailer in my Facebook feed.

The author says that the Israelites were never slaves in Egypt but Mitzrayim. So according to him Mitzrayim and Egypt are different lands.

My question is about the Hebrew of the word Mitzrayim. Is "Egypt" an accurate translation of "Mitzrayim"?

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Is "Egypt" an accurate translation of "Mitzrayim"?

Yes. Ashraf Ezzat is making a bizarre claim. Here's the relevant information from the Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, volume 8, p. 520:

TDOT,p.520

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Yes, they are the same place. I would also like to add that a possible reason why Mitzrayim might be in the Hebrew dual form is because Egypt/Mitzrayim consisted of two parts: Upper & Lower Egypt. Just a theory I have!

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