In Judges 6:12,14,16 we have the angel of the LORD appear to Gideon, but then he is just referred to by LORD, that is, just the tetragrammaton.
12 And the angel of the LORD[?] appeared to him and said to him, ... 14 And the LORD[?] turned to him and said, ... 16 And the LORD[?] said to him,... (ESV)
The note in my ESV Bible told me the Greek Septuagint has "angel of the LORD" in v14 and 16, which I then confirmed. It uses the same phrase, ὁ ἄγγελος κυρίου, in all three verses.
However, all major translations from KJV to ESV just use "LORD."
What texts are these translations basing this on and are there any other variations besides the Septuagint?
Any record or note on why the differences?
It is my observation that slight variations in the LXX often seem more complimentary of Christian and Trinitarian interpretations than the MT. However, in this case, it would seem to be that just using the Tetragrammaton to refer to the angel of the LORD actually lends support for it being a Christophany more than the LXX.