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In Matthew 27:46, what did Jesus mean by referring to God as "my God"?:

Mat 27:46 And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

Was he strengthening his appeal for deliverance (because he wanted to escape suffering through death) by calling attention to the fact that he was a worshiper of YHVH and had placed all his trust in him?

Or was he simply distinguishing him from all others called "God"?

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    I think you realize.... he's quoting Psalm 22 (that part is Hebrew in Matt., though that's complicated) ... something like a third of the uses of ʾēl/ʾĕlōhı̂m in the Hebrew Bible have a pronominal (= "possessive") suffix. | What does this have to do with the lords-prayer? That's usually reserved for Matt. 6:9-6:15. – Susan♦ Jun 18 '16 at 13:41
  • @Susan Are you suggesting that the "my" is not meaningful? – user10231 Jun 18 '16 at 15:08
  • No. I'm suggesting that the textual reason for these words is the identification of Jesus with the Psalmist (cf. Mt. 27:35, 39, 43). – Susan♦ Jun 19 '16 at 0:48
  • @Susan Okay, so by that you mean that he was quoting the psalmist and it was the psalmist's "my" that he "identified with"? Perhaps then I should have based my question on John 20:17, though that loses the element of prayer: Joh 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God. – user10231 Jun 19 '16 at 1:20
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    I just mean that the words were chosen, I think, because that's how the Psalm is worded. – Susan♦ Jun 19 '16 at 12:27
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About three in the afternoon Jesus cried out in a loud voice, "Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?" (which means "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?").

He meant the Father is his God. The Father is also our God.

"Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God." John 20:17

As you can see, Yeshua told Mary that he had to go to "my brothers". That word "my" means they are His brothers. Therefore, when Yeshua says "my God", he means this God is his God.

The Father will always be Yeshua's God...

"Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name." Revelation 3:12

Thank you.

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  • So, "my" as in "the one that I worship"? – user10231 Jun 18 '16 at 13:31
  • Yes, of course. What else would a man do towards his God? – Cannabijoy Jun 18 '16 at 14:25
  • Answers on this site should include working, to show how they are arrived at hermeneutically. Where is your working for this answer? – Dick Harfield Jun 18 '16 at 23:05
  • Hello @DickHarfield. I edited my answer. I'm sorry, the question has such an obvious answer, I wasn't sure how else to answer it. Is this closer to what I should do? Thank you. – Cannabijoy Jun 19 '16 at 11:34

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