In Acts 5:3-4, did Ananias "lie to", "fake" or "pretend"?
Act 5:3 But Peter said, "Ananias, why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the Holy Spirit and to keep back for yourself part of the proceeds of the land? Act 5:4 While it remained unsold, did it not remain your own? And after it was sold, was it not at your disposal? Why is it that you have contrived this deed in your heart? You have not lied to man but to God."
Westcott and Hort / [NA27 variants] Acts 5:3-4 εἶπεν δὲ ὁ Πέτρος Ἁνανία, διὰ τί ἐπλήρωσεν ὁ Σατανᾶς τὴν καρδίαν σου ψεύσασθαί σε τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον καὶ νοσφίσασθαι ἀπὸ τῆς τιμῆς τοῦ χωρίου; οὐχὶ μένον σοὶ ἔμενεν καὶ πραθὲν ἐν τῇ σῇ ἐξουσίᾳ ὑπῆρχεν; τί ὅτι ἔθου ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ σου τὸ πρᾶγμα τοῦτο; οὐκ ἐψεύσω ἀνθρώποις ἀλλὰ τῷ θεῷ.
It seems to me that the middle voice (ψεύσασθαί) combined with σε precludes the idea of "lying" because with σε in the middle voice would mean that he was "lying to himself". The same construct is used in Psalm 66 LXX to translate "feign obedience":
YLT Psa 66:3 Say to God, `How fearful are Thy works, By the abundance of Thy strength, Thine enemies feign obedience to Thee. [See also http://biblehub.com/hebrew/yechachashu_3584.htm]
Psa 66:3 (65:3) εἴπατε τῷ θεῷ Ὡς φοβερὰ τὰ ἔργα σου· ἐν τῷ πλήθει τῆς δυνάμεώς σου ψεύσονταί σε οἱ ἐχθροί σου·
This is further confirmed in my mind by the fact that τὸ
πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον is in the accusative and τὸ ἅγιο is attributive ("the breath that is holy".
So which is it?