In 1 Thes. 4:16, it is written,
16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. NKJV
ΙϚʹ ὅτι αὐτὸς ὁ κύριος ἐν κελεύσματι ἐν φωνῇ ἀρχαγγέλου καὶ ἐν σάλπιγγι θεοῦ καταβήσεται ἀπ᾽ οὐρανοῦ καὶ οἱ νεκροὶ ἐν Χριστῷ ἀναστήσονται πρῶτον TR, 1550
1 Thes. 4:16 includes the phrase "in Christ" (ἐν Χριστῷ) and this is generally translated into English as though it modified οἱ νεκροὶ ("the dead"), thus yielding the translation "the dead in Christ."
However, "in Christ" (ἐν Χριστῷ) is in the Dative case, so isn't it more logical that it modifies the verb that follows (i.e., ἀναστήσονται), thus yielding the translation "will rise first in Christ"?