1

And the Lord spoke to Moses, saying: “Take vengeance on the Midianites for the children of Israel. Afterward you shall be gathered to your people.” (Numbers 31:1,2.)

Did this imply what Moses ordered after the war?

“Now therefore, kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman who has known a man intimately.” (Numbers 31:17.)

2

The way I read it the "take vengeance" part includes both the battle and the removal of all of the followers of Balaam son of Beor just as it is written.

4
  • Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange, thanks for contributing! Be sure to take our site tour to learn more about us. We're a little different from other sites. – Steve Taylor May 12 '16 at 9:08
  • This doesn't show its work, which is a requirement on this site. Don't just tell us what you know, tell us how you know it. – Steve Taylor May 12 '16 at 9:08
  • I am quoting from the exact same chapter that the thread poster mentioned - Exodus 31. Ah. Forgive me for assuming that the people reading this thread would have actually read the material prior to making comment. – JasonF May 14 '16 at 5:25
  • It's okay, as you get familiar with the site you'll get an idea of the typical standard of Answers on BH.SE – Steve Taylor May 14 '16 at 7:17

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