Does the language used in the three verses referencing the release of a prisoner at the feast suggest anything about the timing of such a release?
In Matthew and Mark it is the Feast and in John it is the Passover. Does this suggest he would customarily do it ON Passover Feast day (15th Nisan) or leading up to it?
Matthew 27:15 (All ESV and mGNT)
Now at the feast the governor was accustomed to release for the crowd any one prisoner whom they wanted.
κατὰ δὲ ἑορτὴν εἰώθει ὁ ἡγεμὼν ἀπολύειν ἕνα τῷ ὄχλῳ δέσμιον ὃν ἤθελον
Now at the feast he used to release for them one prisoner for whom they asked.
κατὰ δὲ ἑορτὴν ἀπέλυεν αὐτοῖς ἕνα δέσμιον ὃν παρῃτοῦντο
But you have a custom that I should release one man for you at the Passover. So do you want me to release to you the King of the Jews?”
ἔστιν δὲ συνήθεια ὑμῖν ἵνα ἕνα ἀπολύσω ὑμῖν ἐν τῷ πάσχα βούλεσθε οὖν ἀπολύσω ὑμῖν τὸν βασιλέα τῶν Ἰουδαίων
Clearly, establishing that it does suggest a timing would impact our understanding of the passion chronology. However, I ask that answers please refrain from getting into Passion chronology that is outside the basic intent of the question. Also debates on whether such an event or custom existed. If such a suggestion and impact does exist, it should be able to exist independently out of the text.
This is just a Greek exegesis question.