I've heard it said that the visions of Daniel 7-12 and the book of Revelation both contain the same "dream-like apocalyptic" language and as such can be interpreted together. So the meaning of symbolism, the way time passes in their visions, their use of numbers, and so on, can all be interpreted in one consistent method across the two.
While it seems to make sense and it was told to me by a very knowledgeable source, I cannot find any major scholarly reference to this idea in published literature. Not by this description.
- Is this concept supported by any modern scholarship, and, roughly, what is the basis of the claim?
I am looking for published examples of applying this consistent hermeneutical approach to the specifics of Daniel and Revelation's visions, and hopefully their reasons for doing so.
This would assume Daniel and Revelation's visions are the same literary genre, but would be taking it beyond what that necessarily implied by that. Just knowing they are Apocalyptic literature only narrows the field.
I'm not looking for a theological or scriptural verse by verse comparison or interpretation of content or conclusions from applying the approach. Rather, this question is about how the two books relate in form and how far that can affect our approach to their interpretation.
Likewise, the sub-question, of what is the basis of such a position, should be focusing on more technical reasons, not a discussion of content.
Answers should be entirely factual summaries: "This example used this approach and gave these reasons for doing so"