Although it seems to be a fairly common error, even in significant writers such as Shakespeare, Dickens, Twain, etc, still I was surprised to find the "from whence" instead of "whence" error in Bible translations (e.g. KJV, ASV and others: 2 Samuel 1:3, Job 2:2, and Psalm 121:1-2). I guess I just assumed that Bible translators tend to be of the highest caliber and so they of all people would watch for that kind of thing.
In fact, so surprising is it that I'm wondering if it's not actually an error. Can anyone shed any light on this; was "from whence" (i.e. "from from where") used on purpose?