My question deals with a specific part of John 4:23 and John 5:25.
John 4:23 - Yet a time is coming and has now come when the true worshipers will worship the Father in the Spirit and in truth, for they are the kind of worshipers the Father seeks.
John 5:25 - Very truly I tell you, a time is coming and has now come when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God and those who hear will live.
Semantically, the bold phrase "and has now come" seems at odds with "is coming" since there is really no need to say that something will come in the future if it has already occured. I am curious if there is any biblical scholarship that asserts that John himself added "and has now come" to Jesus' speech in light of the fact that he wrote these verses years after the fact and is letting his readers know that what Jesus said has in fact come to pass?