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For to which of the angels did God ever say, “You are my Son; today I have become your Father”? Or again, “I will be his Father, and he will be my Son”? (‭Hebrews‬ ‭1‬:‭5‬ NIV)

Why does the author of Hebrews use the term "will" if Jesus "was"?

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (‭John‬ ‭1‬:‭1‬ ESV)

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    Hello Ishy Ar EX, and welcome. An edit has been suggested to your question to remove the references to Paul. That's because almost nobody in modern scholarship thinks that Paul wrote Hebrews. Because it's not really relevant to your question who wrote it, I agree with removing those references to avoid distracting people with a claim they are likely to disagree with, but it would be best if you could approve the edit if you agree. Thanks. – Susan Jan 27 '16 at 19:41
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enter image description here Hb 1:5 Interlinear NA27

εἶπεν αὐτοῖς ὁ Ἰησοῦς• εἰ ὁ θεὸς πατὴρ ὑμῶν ἦν ἠγαπᾶτε ἂν ἐμέ, ἐγὼ γὰρ ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐξῆλθον καὶ ἥκω• οὐδὲ γὰρ ἀπ’ ἐμαυτοῦ ἐλήλυθα, ἀλλ’ ἐκεῖνός με ἀπέστειλεν. John 8:42

ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ > coming from within God

Jesus is the one who comes out of God and the first to return into God, because many will be one.

Note that the Septuagint uses the preposition πρὸς in Ecclesiastes 12:7 “…πρὸς τὸν θεόν...”

then [3 shall return 1 the 2 dust] upon the earth as it was; and the spirit should return to next of God who gave it. Ecclesiastes 12:7

Dodson Greek-English Lexicon G4314 πρός PREPosition to, towards, with

Jesus being in God, the single, is impossible other than God.

καὶ ἔσομαι ὑμῖν εἰς πατέρα καὶ ὑμεῖς ἔσεσθέ μοι εἰς υἱοὺς καὶ θυγατέρας, λέγει κύριος παντοκράτωρ. (2Co 6:18 [NA28])

We will all be one God in God.

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The first two chapters of this letter includes a dozen or more quotes or references to the Hebrew Bible or other Jewish literature. Verse 5b quotes 2 Samuel 7:14 wherein Nathan tells David that the Lord 'will' raise up his offspring to build a temple and sit on the throne after him, that the Lord 'will' be a father to him and he 'will' be the Lord's son. While the passage seems to have originally referred to Solomon, the author of Hebrews appropriates part of the verse as-is in his argument for the superiority of Jesus over angels.

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The Creator was never called "Jesus" nor a Son until He was born of Mary. We do not know what His relationship to God the Father was prior to His birth as a human. He was fully God-John 1:1-but divested Himself of His Divinity to become the first Son of God able to die and pay our sins.

God was speaking of the past--before Christ was born--when He said, "I will be His Father and He will be my Son..." All He is saying is, "From the time that Angels were created, when did I ever say to any of them, "I will be your Father and you will be my Son?"

As Isaiah says:

For unto us a Child is born, Unto us a Son is given; And the government will be upon His shoulder. And His name will be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

These are all "will" ...

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