In the NABRE's rendition of Ezekiel 3:20, it appears that Ezekiel will be held accountable for the initially-just person's sin, even if he warned the person to not sin:
(NABRE) But if the just turn away from their right conduct and do evil when I place a stumbling block before them, then they shall die. Even if you warned them about their sin, they shall still die, and the just deeds that they performed will not be remembered on their behalf. I will, however, hold you responsible for their blood.
This seems to run counter to every other English translation. Some translations say something like "if you had not warned", and others say something like "because you did not warn", but the NABRE seems to be the only translation which discusses the scenario in which Ezekiel does warn the just. Examples:
(RSVCE) Again, if a righteous man turns from his righteousness and commits iniquity, and I lay a stumbling block before him, he shall die; because you have not warned him, he shall die for his sin, and his righteous deeds which he has done shall not be remembered; but his blood I will require at your hand.
(HCSB) Now if a righteous person turns from his righteousness and practices iniquity, and I put a stumbling block in front of him, he will die. If you did not warn him, he will die because of his sin and the righteous acts he did will not be remembered. Yet I will hold you responsible for his blood.
(NASB) Again, when a righteous man turns away from his righteousness and commits iniquity, and I place an obstacle before him, he will die; since you have not warned him, he shall die in his sin, and his righteous deeds which he has done shall not be remembered; but his blood I will require at your hand.
Is there any justification for the NABRE's rendering? Is there ambiguity in the Hebrew?