In Matthew 23 Jesus goes into a lengthy rebuke of the scribes and Pharisees. In verses 13, 14, 15, 23, 25, 27, 29 (some translations omit 14), He begins by saying:
“But woe to you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites!..." (ESV)
Is it clear that Jesus is calling the scribes and Pharisees hypocrites? Or is it possible that while He is focused on the scribes and Pharisees, He is including others who are hypocrites but are not a scribe or Pharisee?
Note – some view "hypocrite" as problematic since there may not have been an Aramaic or Hebrew word with that meaning. This fails to consider the nature of oral communication. There is nothing restricting a person's vocabulary to their own language. The Greek hypokritai is used in the Septuagint (Job 34:30 and 36:13) indicating the word was present before the birth of Christ. The absence of an Aramaic equivalent to hypocrite (if this was the case) could be seen as a reason to believe that Jesus used hypokritai.